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Amazon AWS Certified Specialty ANS-C00 exam effective practice questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
You have a three-tier web application with separate subnets for Web, Applications, and Database tiers. Your CISO
suspects your application will be the target of malicious activity. You are tasked with notifying the security team in the
event your application is port scanned by external systems.
Which two AWS Services cloud you leverage to build an automated notification system? (Choose two.)
A. Internet gateway
B. VPC Flow Logs
C. AWS CloudTrail
D. Lambda
E. AWS Inspector
Correct Answer: CD
References: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/security/how-to-receive-alerts-when-specific-apis-are-called-by-using-awscloudtrail-amazon-sns-and-aws-lambda/


QUESTION 2
A company uses a single connection to the internet when connecting its on-premises location to AWS. It has selected
an AWS Partner Network (APN) Partner to provide a point-to-point circuit for its first-ever 10 Gbps AWS Direct Connect
connection.
What steps must be taken to order the cross-connect at the Direct Connect location?
A. Obtain the LOA/CFA from the APN Partner when ordering connectivity. Upload it to the AWS Management Console
when creating a new Direct Connect connection. AWS will ensure that the cross-connect is installed.
B. Obtain the LOA/CFA from the AWS Management Console when ordering the Direct Connect connection. Provide it to
the APN Partner when ordering connectivity. The Direct Connect partner will ensure that the cross-connect is installed.
C. Obtain the LOA/CFA each from the AWS Management Console and the APN Partner. Provide both to the Facility
Operator of the Direct Connect location. The Facility Operatir will ensure that the cross-connect is installed.
D. Identify the APN Partner in the AWS Management Console when creating the Direct Connect connection. Provide
the resulting Connection ID to the APN Partner, who will ensure that the cross-connect is installed.
Correct Answer: B
  

QUESTION 3
A company has a hybrid IT architecture with two AWS Direct Connect connections to provide high availability. The
services hosted on-premises are accessible using public IPs, and are also on the 172.16.0.0/16 range. The AWS resources are on the 192.168.0.0/18 range. The company wants to use Amazon Elastic Load Balancing for SSL
offloading, health checks, and sticky sessions.
What should be done to meet these requirements?
A. Create a Network Load Balancer pointing to the on-premises server\\’s private IP address.
B. Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution for the on-premises service and use the public IPs of the on-premises
servers as the origin.
C. Create a Network Load Balancer pointing to the on-premises server\\’s public IP address.
D. Create an Application Load Balancer pointing to the on-premises server\\’s private IP address.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A network engineer deploys an application in a private subnet in a VPC that connects to many external video feed
providers using RTMP over the internet. A NAT gateway has been deployed in a public subnet and is working as
expected. From the Amazon EC2 instance, the application is able to connect to all feed providers except one, which
hangs when connecting. Manually testing a connection from an Amazon EC2 instance in the public subnet to the
problem feed indicates that the feed works as expected.
What is causing this issue?
A. The NAT gateway does not support fragmented packets.
B. The internet gateway only supports an MTU of 1500 bytes.
C. An Amazon EC2 instance expects to communicate with an MTU of 9001.
D. The security group on the instances does not allow PMTUD.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
A company is about to migrate an application from its on-premises data center to AWS. As part of the planning process,
the following requirements involving DNS have been identified.
On-premises systems must be able to resolve the entries in an Amazon Route 53 private hosted zone.
Amazon EC2 instances running in the organization\\’s VPC must be able to resolve the DNS names of on-premises
systems
The organization\\’s VPC uses the CIDR block 172.16.0.0/16.
Assuming that there is no DNS namespace overlap, how can these requirements be met?
A. Change the DHCP options set for the VPC to use both the Amazon-provided DNS server and the on-premises DNS
systems. Configure the on-premises DNS systems with a stub-zone, delegating the name server 172.16.0.2 as
authoritative for the Route 53 private hosted zone.
B. Deploy and configure a set of EC2 instances into the company VPC to act as DNS proxies. Configure the proxies to
forward queries for the on-premises domain to the on-premises DNS systems, and forward all other queries to
172.16.0.2. Change the DHCP options set for the VPC to use the new DNS proxies. Configure the on-premises DNS
systems with a stub-zone, delegating the name server 172.16.0.2 as authoritative for the Route 53 private hosted zone.
C. Deploy and configure a set of EC2 instances into the company VPC to act as DNS proxies. Configure the proxies to
forward queries for the on-premises domain to the on-premises DNS systems, and forward all other queries to the
Amazon-provided DNS server (172.16.0.2). Change the DHCP options set for the VPC to use the new DNS proxies.
Configure the on-premises DNS systems with a stub-zone, delegating the proxies as authoritative for the Route 53
private hosted zone.
D. Change the DHCP options set for the VPC to use both the on-premises DNS systems. Configure the on-premises
DNS systems with a stub-zone, delegating the Route 53 private hosted zone\\’s name servers as authoritative for the
Route 53 private hosted zone.
Correct Answer: C

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Amazon AWS Certified Foundational CLF-C01 exam effective practice questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which AWS hybrid storage service enables your on-premises applications to seamlessly use AWS Cloud storage
through standard file-storage protocols?
A. AWS Direct Connect
B. AWS Snowball
C. AWS Storage Gateway
D. AWS Snowball Edge
Correct Answer: C
The AWS Storage Gateway service enables hybrid cloud storage between on-premises environments and the AWS
Cloud. It seamlessly integrates on-premises enterprise applications and workflows with Amazon\\’s block and object
cloud storage services through industry-standard storage protocols. It provides low-latency performance by caching
frequently accessed data on-premises while storing data securely and durably in Amazon cloud storage services. It
provides an optimized data transfer mechanism and bandwidth management, which tolerates unreliable networks and
minimizes the amount of data being transferred. It brings the security, manageability, durability, and scalability of AWS
to existing enterprise environments through native integration with AWS encryption, identity management, monitoring,
and storage services. Typical use cases include backup and archiving, disaster recovery, moving data to S3 for in-cloud
workloads, and tiered storage.
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/storagegateway/faqs/


QUESTION 2
What can AWS edge locations be used for? (Choose two.)
A. Hosting applications
B. Delivering content closer to users
C. Running NoSQL database caching services
D. Reducing traffic on the server by caching responses
E. Sending notification messages to end-users
Correct Answer: BD
CloudFront delivers your content through a worldwide network of data centers called edge locations. When a user
requests content that you\\’re serving with CloudFront, the user is routed to the edge location that provides the lowest
latency (time delay), so that content is delivered with the best possible performance.
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudFront/latest/DeveloperGuide/Introduction.html

QUESTION 3
Which AWS service of feature can be used to monitor CPU usage?
A. AWS CloudTrail
B. VPC Flow Logs
C. Amazon CloudWatch
D. AWSConfig
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
A company is releasing a business-critical application Before the release the company needs strategic planning
assistance from AWS. During the release, it needs infrastructure event management and real-time Suppor.
How can these requirements be met?
A. Access AWS Trusted Advisor
B. Contact the AWS Partner Network (APN).
C. Sign up for AWS Enterprise Support
D. Contact AWS Professional Services
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
What is an example of agility in the AWS Cloud?
A. Access to multiple instance types
B. Access to managed services
C. Using Consolidated Billing to produce one bill
D. Decreased acquisition time for new compute resources
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/enterprise-strategy/risk-is-lack-of-agility/

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Amazon AWS Certified Specialty DAS-C01 exam effective practice questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
A media analytics company consumes a stream of social media posts. The posts are sent to an Amazon Kinesis data
stream partitioned on user_id. An AWS Lambda function retrieves the records and validates the content before loading
the posts into an Amazon Elasticsearch cluster. The validation process needs to receive the posts for a given user in the
order they were received. A data analyst has noticed that, during peak hours, the social media platform posts take more
than an hour to appear in the Elasticsearch cluster.
What should the data analyst do reduce this latency?
A. Migrate the validation process to Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose.
B. Migrate the Lambda consumers from standard data stream iterators to an HTTP/2 stream consumer.
C. Increase the number of shards in the stream.
D. Configure multiple Lambda functions to process the stream.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
A media company has been performing analytics on log data generated by its applications. There has been a recent
increase in the number of concurrent analytics jobs running, and the overall performance of existing jobs is decreasing
as the number of new jobs is increasing. The partitioned data is stored in Amazon S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access (S3
One Zone-IA) and the analytic processing is performed on Amazon EMR clusters using the EMR File System (EMRFS)
with consistent view enabled. A data analyst has determined that it is taking longer for the EMR task nodes to list
objects in Amazon S3.
Which action would MOST likely increase the performance of accessing log data in Amazon S3?
A. Use a hash function to create a random string and add that to the beginning of the object prefixes when storing the
log data in Amazon S3.
B. Use a lifecycle policy to change the S3 storage class to S3 Standard for the log data.
C. Increase the read capacity units (RCUs) for the shared Amazon DynamoDB table.
D. Redeploy the EMR clusters that are running slowly to a different Availability Zone.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An insurance company has raw data in JSON format that is sent without a predefined schedule through an Amazon
Kinesis Data Firehose delivery stream to an Amazon S3 bucket. An AWS Glue crawler is scheduled to run every 8
hours to update the schema in the data catalog of the tables stored in the S3 bucket. Data analysts analyze the data
using Apache Spark SQL on Amazon EMR set up with AWS Glue Data Catalog as the metastore. Data analysts say
that, occasionally, the data they receive is stale. A data engineer needs to provide access to the most up-to-date data.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Create an external schema based on the AWS Glue Data Catalog on the existing Amazon Redshift cluster to query
new data in Amazon S3 with Amazon Redshift Spectrum.
B. Use Amazon CloudWatch Events with the rate (1 hour) expression to execute the AWS Glue crawler every hour.
C. Using the AWS CLI, modify the execution schedule of the AWS Glue crawler from 8 hours to 1 minute.
D. Run the AWS Glue crawler from an AWS Lambda function triggered by an S3:ObjectCreated:* event notification on
the S3 bucket.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A company has 1 million scanned documents stored as image files in Amazon S3. The documents contain typewritten
application forms with information including the applicant first name, applicant last name, application date, application
type, and application text. The company has developed a machine learning algorithm to extract the metadata values
from the scanned documents. The company wants to allow internal data analysts to analyze and find applications using
the applicant name, application date, or application text. The original images should also be downloadable. Cost control
is secondary to query performance.
Which solution organizes the images and metadata to drive insights while meeting the requirements?
A. For each image, use object tags to add the metadata. Use Amazon S3 Select to retrieve the files based on the
applicant name and application date.
B. Index the metadata and the Amazon S3 location of the image file in Amazon Elasticsearch Service. Allow the data
analysts to use Kibana to submit queries to the Elasticsearch cluster.
C. Store the metadata and the Amazon S3 location of the image file in an Amazon Redshift table. Allow the data
analysts to run ad-hoc queries on the table.
D. Store the metadata and the Amazon S3 location of the image files in an Apache Parquet file in Amazon S3, and
define a table in the AWS Glue Data Catalog. Allow data analysts to use Amazon Athena to submit custom queries.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A media content company has a streaming playback application. The company wants to collect and analyze the data to
provide near-real-time feedback on playback issues. The company needs to consume this data and return results within
30 seconds according to the service-level agreement (SLA). The company needs the consumer to identify playback
issues, such as quality during a specified timeframe. The data will be emitted as JSON and may change schemas over
time.
Which solution will allow the company to collect data for processing while meeting these requirements?
A. Send the data to Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose with delivery to Amazon S3. Configure an S3 event trigger an AWS
Lambda function to process the data. The Lambda function will consume the data and process it to identify potential
playback issues. Persist the raw data to Amazon S3.
B. Send the data to Amazon Managed Streaming for Kafka and configure an Amazon Kinesis Analytics for Java
application as the consumer. The application will consume the data and process it to identify potential playback issues.

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Amazon AWS Certified Associate DVA-C01 exam effective practice questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
A company is running a custom application on a set of on-premises Linux servers that are accessed using Amazon API
Gateway AWS X-Ray tracing has been enabled on the API test stage. How can a developer enable X-Ray tracing on
the on-premises servers with the LEAST amount of configuration?
A. Install and run the X-Ray SDK on the on-premises servers to capture and relay the data to the X-Ray service.
B. Install and run the X-Ray daemon on the on-premises servers to capture and relay the data to the X-Ray service.
C. Capture incoming requests on-premises and configure an AWS Lambda function to pull, process, and relay relevant
data to X-Ray using the PutTraceSegments API call.
D. Capture incoming requests on-premises and configure an AWS Lambda function to pull, process, and relay relevant
data to X-Ray using the PutTelemetryRecords API call.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A Developer is building a serverless application using AWS Lambda and must create a REST API using an HTTP GET
method. What needs to be defined to meet this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. A [email protected] function
B. An Amazon API Gateway with a Lambda function
C. An exposed GET method in an Amazon API Gateway
D. An exposed GET method in the Lambda function
E. An exposed GET method in Amazon Route 53
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/apigateway/latest/developerguide/apigateway-getting-started-with-restapis.html

QUESTION 3
A website\\’s page load times are gradually increasing as more users access the system at the same time. Analysis
indicates that a user profile is being loaded from a database in all the web pages being visited by each user and this is
increasing the database load and the page load latency. To address this issue the Developer decides to cache the user
profile data.
Which caching strategy will address this situation MOST efficiently?
A. Create a new Amazon EC2 Instance and run a NoSQL database on it. Cache the profile data within this database
using the write-through caching strategy.
B. Create an Amazon ElastiCache cluster to cache the user profile data. Use a cache-aside caching strategy.
C. Use a dedicated Amazon RDS instance for caching profile data. Use a write-through caching strategy.
D. Create an ElastiCache cluster to cache the user profile data. Use a write-through caching strategy.
Correct Answer: B
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonElastiCache/latest/mem-ug/Strategies.html


QUESTION 4
A Developer created a dashboard for an application using Amazon API Gateway, Amazon S3, AWS Lambda, and
Amazon RDS. The Developer needs an authentication mechanism allowing a user to sign in and view the dashboard. It
must be accessible from mobile applications, desktops, and tablets, and must remember user preferences across
platforms.
Which AWS service should the Developer use to support this authentication scenario?
A. AWS KMS
B. Amazon Cognito
C. AWS Directory Service
D. Amazon IAM
Correct Answer: B
Cognito user pool provides sign up and sign in functionality along with identity pool which provides temp credentials for
using AWS services.


QUESTION 5
A developer is writing an AWS Lambda function. The developer wants to log key events that occur during the Lambda
function and include a unique identifier to associate the events with a specific function invocation. Which of the following
will help the developer accomplish this objective?
A. Obtain the request identifier from the Lambda context object. Architect the application to write logs to the console.
B. Obtain the request identifier from the Lambda event object. Architect the application to write logs to a file.
C. Obtain the request identifier from the Lambda event object. Architect the application to write logs to the console.
D. Obtain the request identifier from the Lambda context object. Architect the application to write logs to a file.
Correct Answer: A

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Amazon AWS Certified Specialty MLS-C01 exam effective practice questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
A Data Scientist is developing a machine learning model to predict future patient outcomes based on information
collected about each patient and their treatment plans. The model should output a continuous value as its prediction.
The data
available includes labeled outcomes for a set of 4,000 patients. The study was conducted on a group of individuals over
the age of 65 who have a particular disease that is known to worsen with age.
Initial models have performed poorly. While reviewing the underlying data, the Data Scientist notices that, out of 4,000
patient observations, there are 450 where the patient age has been input as 0. The other features for these
observations
appear normal compared to the rest of the sample population.
How should the Data Scientist correct this issue?
A. Drop all records from the dataset where age has been set to 0.
B. Replace the age field value for records with a value of 0 with the mean or median value from the dataset.
C. Drop the age feature from the dataset and train the model using the rest of the features.
D. Use k-means clustering to handle missing features.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
For the given confusion matrix, what is the recall and precision of the model?

Easyhometraining MLS-C01 exam questions-q2

A. Recall = 0.92 Precision = 0.84
B. Recall = 0.84 Precision = 0.8
C. Recall = 0.92 Precision = 0.8
D. Recall = 0.8 Precision = 0.92
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A large mobile network operating company is building a machine learning model to predict customers who are likely to
unsubscribe from the service. The company plans to offer an incentive for these customers as the cost of churn is far
greater than the cost of the incentive.
The model produces the following confusion matrix after evaluating on a test dataset of 100 customers:

Easyhometraining MLS-C01 exam questions-q3

Based on the model evaluation results, why is this a viable model for production?
A. The model is 86% accurate and the cost incurred by the company as a result of false negatives is less than the false
positives.
B. The precision of the model is 86%, which is less than the accuracy of the model.
C. The model is 86% accurate and the cost incurred by the company as a result of false positives is less than the false
negatives.
D. The precision of the model is 86%, which is greater than the accuracy of the model.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A city wants to monitor its air quality to address the consequences of air pollution A Machine Learning Specialist needs
to forecast the air quality in parts per million of contaminates for the next 2 days in the city As this is a prototype, only
daily data from the last year is available
Which model is MOST likely to provide the best results in Amazon SageMaker?
A. Use the Amazon SageMaker k-Nearest-Neighbors (kNN) algorithm on the single time series consisting of the full year
of data with a predictor_type of the regressor.
B. Use Amazon SageMaker Random Cut Forest (RCF) on the single time series consisting of the full year of data.
C. Use the Amazon SageMaker Linear Learner algorithm on the single time series consisting of the full year of data with
a predictor_type of the regressor.
D. Use the Amazon SageMaker Linear Learner algorithm on the single time series consisting of the full year of data with QUESTION 4
A city wants to monitor its air quality to address the consequences of air pollution A Machine Learning Specialist needs
to forecast the air quality in parts per million of contaminates for the next 2 days in the city As this is a prototype, only
daily data from the last year is available
Which model is MOST likely to provide the best results in Amazon SageMaker?
A. Use the Amazon SageMaker k-Nearest-Neighbors (kNN) algorithm on the single time series consisting of the full year
of data with a predictor_type of the regressor.
B. Use Amazon SageMaker Random Cut Forest (RCF) on the single time series consisting of the full year of data.
C. Use the Amazon SageMaker Linear Learner algorithm on the single time series consisting of the full year of data with
a predictor_type of the regressor.
D. Use the Amazon SageMaker Linear Learner algorithm on the single time series consisting of the full year of data with a predictor_type of the classifier.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/machine-learning/build-a-model-to-predict-the-impact-of-weather-on-urbanair-quality-using-amazon-sagemaker/?ref=Welcome.AI

QUESTION 5
A Machine Learning Specialist is building a logistic regression model that will predict whether or not a person will order a
pizza. The Specialist is trying to build the optimal model with an ideal classification threshold. What model evaluation
the technique should the Specialist use to understand how different classification thresholds will impact the model\\’s
performance?
A. Receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve
B. Misclassification rate
C. Root Mean Square Error (RMand)
D. L1 norm
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/machine-learning/latest/dg/binary-model-insights.html

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Amazon AWS Certified Associate SAA-C02 exam effective practice questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Organizers for a global event want to put daily reports online as static HTML pages The pages are expected to generate
millions of views from users around the world The files are stored in an Amazon S3 bucket A solutions architect has
been asked to design an efficient and effective solution Which action should the solutions architect take to accomplish
this?
A. Generate pre-signed URLs for the files
B. Use cross-Region replication to all Regions
C. Use the geo proximity feature of Amazon Route 53
D. Use Amazon CloudFront with the S3 bucket as its origin
Correct Answer: D
Using Amazon S3 Origins, MediaPackage Channels, and Custom Origins for Web Distributions
Using Amazon S3 Buckets for Your Origin
When you use Amazon S3 as an origin for your distribution, you place any objects that you want CloudFront to deliver in
an Amazon S3 bucket. You can use any method that is supported by Amazon S3 to get your objects into Amazon S3,
for
example, the Amazon S3 console or API, or a third-party tool. You can create a hierarchy in your bucket to store the
objects, just as you would with any other Amazon S3 bucket.
Using an existing Amazon S3 bucket as your CloudFront origin server doesn\\’t change the bucket in any way; you can
still use it as you normally would store and access Amazon S3 objects at the standard Amazon S3 price. You incur
regular Amazon S3 charges for storing the objects in the bucket.
Using Amazon S3 Buckets Configured as Website Endpoints for Your Origin
You can set up an Amazon S3 bucket that is configured as a website endpoint as the custom origin with CloudFront.
When you configure your CloudFront distribution, for the origin, enter the Amazon S3 static website hosting endpoint for
your bucket. This value appears in the Amazon S3 console, on the Properties tab, in the Static website hosting pane.
For
example: http://bucket-name.s3-website-region.amazonaws.com
For more information about specifying Amazon S3 static website endpoints, see Website endpoints in the Amazon
Simple Storage Service Developer Guide.
When you specify the bucket name in this format as your origin, you can use Amazon S3 redirects and Amazon S3
custom error documents. For more information about Amazon S3 features, see the Amazon S3 documentation.
Using an Amazon S3 bucket as your CloudFront origin server doesn\\’t change it in any way. You can still use it as you
normally would and you incur regular Amazon S3 charges.
Reference:
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudFront/latest/DeveloperGuide/DownloadDistS3AndCustomOrigins.html

QUESTION 2
A company is managing health records on-premises. The company must keep these records indefinitely, disable any
modifications to the records once they are stored, and granularly audit access at all levels. The chief technology officer
(CTO) is concerned because there are already millions of records not being used by any application, and the current
infrastructure is running out of space. The CTO has requested a solutions architect to design a solution to move existing
data and support future records.
Which services can the solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?
A. Use AWS DataSync to move existing data to AWS. Use Amazon S3 to store existing and new data Enable Amazon
S3 object lock and enable AWS CloudTrail with data events.
B. Use AWS Storage Gateway to move existing data to AWS Use Amazon S3 to store existing and new data. Enable
Amazon S3 object locks and enables AWS CloudTrail with management events.
C. Use AWS DataSync to move existing data to AWS Use Amazon S3 to store existing and new data Enable Amazon
S3 object locks and enables AWS CloudTrail with management events.
D. Use AWS Storage Gateway to move existing data to AWS Use Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) to store
existing and new data Enable Amazon S3 object lock and enable Amazon S3 server access logging
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A solutions architect is designing the storage architecture for a new web application used for storing and viewing
engineering drawings. All application components will be deployed on the AWS infrastructure. The application design
must
support caching to minimize the amount of time that users wait for the engineering drawings to load. The application
must be able to store petabytes of data.
Which combination of storage and caching should the solutions architect use?
A. Amazon S3 with Amazon CloudFront
B. Amazon S3 Glacier with Amazon ElastiCache
C. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes with Amazon CloudFront
D. AWS Storage Gateway with Amazon ElastiCache
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A company has 150 TB of archived image data stored on-premises that need to be mowed to the AWS Cloud within
the next month. The company\\’s current network connection allows up to 100 Mbps uploads for this purpose during the night only.
What is the MOST cost-effective mechanism to move this data and meet the migration deadline?
A. Use AWS Snowmobile to ship the data to AWS.
B. Order multiple AWS Snowball devices to ship the data to AWS.
C. Enable Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration and securely upload the data.
D. Create an Amazon S3 VPC endpoint and establish a VPN to upload the data.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
A company is reviewing its AWS Cloud deployment to ensure its data is not accessed by anyone without appropriate
authorization. A solutions architect is tasked with identifying all open Amazon S3 buckets and recording any S3 bucket
configuration changes.
What should the solutions architect do to accomplish this?
A. Enable AWS Config service with the appropriate rules
B. Enable AWS Trusted Advisor with the appropriate checks.
C. Write a script using an AWS SDK to generate a bucket report
D. Enable Amazon S3 server access logging and configure Amazon CloudWatch Events.
Correct Answer: A

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Amazon AWS Certified Specialty SCS-C01 exam effective practice questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is not a best practice for carrying out a security audit? Please select:
A. Conduct an audit on a yearly basis
B. Conduct an audit if application instances have been added to your account
C. Conduct an audit if you ever suspect that an unauthorized person might have accessed your account
D. Whenever there are changes in your organization
Correct Answer: A
A year\\’s time is generally too long a gap for conducting security audits
The AWS Documentation mentions the following
You should audit your security configuration in the following situations:
On a periodic basis.
If there are changes in your organization, such as people leaving.
If you have stopped using one or more individual AWS services. This is important for removing permissions that users in
your account no longer need.
If you\\’ve added or removed software in your accounts, such as applications on Amazon EC2 instances, AWS OpsWor
stacks, AWS CloudFormation templates, etc.
If you ever suspect that an unauthorized person might have accessed your account.
Option B, C and D are all the right ways and recommended best practices when it comes to conducting audits For more
information on Security Audit guideline, please visit the below URL:
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/eeneral/latest/gr/aws-security-audit-euide.html
The correct answer is: Conduct an audit on a yearly basis Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts

QUESTION 2
Your company has a hybrid environment, with on-premise servers and servers hosted in the AWS cloud. They are
planning to use the Systems Manager for patching servers. Which of the following is a pre-requisite for this to work;
Please select:
A. Ensure that the on-premise servers are running on Hyper-V.
B. Ensure that an 1AM service role is created
C. Ensure that an 1AM User is created
D. Ensure that an 1AM Group is created for the on-premise servers
Correct Answer: B
You need to ensure that an 1AM service role is created for allowing the on-premise servers to communicate with the
AWS Systems Manager. Option A is incorrect since it is not necessary that servers should only be running Hyper-V
Options C and D are incorrect since it is not necessary that 1AM users and groups are created For more information on
the Systems Manager role please refer to the below URL: com/systems-rnanaeer/latest/usereuide/sysman-! The correct
answer is: Ensure that an 1AM service role is created Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts

QUESTION 3
A Security Administrator is configuring an Amazon S3 bucket and must meet the following security requirements:
Encryption in transit Encryption at rest Logging of all object retrievals in AWS CloudTrail
Which of the following meet these security requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Specify “aws: SecureTransport”: “true” within a condition in the S3 bucket policy.
B. Enable a security group for the S3 bucket that allows port 443, but not port 80.
C. Set up default encryption for the S3 bucket.
D. Enable Amazon CloudWatch Logs for the AWS account.
E. Enable API logging of data events for all S3 objects.
F. Enable S3 object versioning for the S3 bucket.
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 4
A Development team has asked for help configuring the IAM roles and policies in a new AWS account. The team using
the account expects to have hundreds of master keys and therefore does not want to manage access control for
customer master keys (CMKs).
Which of the following will allow the team to manage AWS KMS permissions in IAM without the complexity of editing
individual key policies?
A. The account\\’s CMK key policy must allow the account\\’s IAM roles to perform KMS EnableKey.
B. Newly created CMKs must have a key policy that allows the root principal to perform all actions.
C. Newly created CMKs must allow the root principal to perform the KMS CreateGrant API operation.
D. Newly created CMKs must mirror the IAM policy of the KMS key administrator.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
During a security event, it is discovered that some Amazon EC2 instances have not been sending Amazon CloudWatch
logs.
Which steps can the Security Engineer take to troubleshoot this issue? (Select two.)
A. Connect to the EC2 instances that are not sending the appropriate logs and verify that the CloudWatch Logs agent is
running.
B. Log in to the AWS account and select CloudWatch Logs. Check for any monitored EC2 instances that are in the
“Alerting” state and restart them using the EC2 console.
C. Verify that the EC2 instances have a route to the public AWS API endpoints.
D. Connect to the EC2 instances that are not sending logs. Use the command prompt to verify that the right permissions
have been set for the Amazon SNS topic.
E. Verify that the network access control lists and security groups of the EC2 instances have the access to send logs
over SNMP.
Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
After selecting an Amazon EC2 Dedicated Host reservation, which pricing option would provide the largest discount?
A. No upfront payment
B. Hourly on-demand payment
C. Partial upfront payment
D. All upfront payment
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/ec2/pricing/reserved-instances/pricing/


QUESTION 2
Which of the following security measures protect access to an AWS account? (Choose two.)
A. Enable AWS CloudTrail.
B. Grant least privilege access to IAM users.
C. Create one IAM user and share with many developers and users.
D. Enable Amazon CloudFront.
E. Activate multi-factor authentication (MFA) for privileged users.
Correct Answer: BE
If you decided to create service accounts (that is, accounts used for programmatic access by applications running
outside of the AWS environment) and generate access keys for them, you should create a dedicated service account for
each use case. This will allow you to restrict the associated policy to only the permissions needed for the particular use
case, limiting the blast radius if the credentials are compromised. For example, if a monitoring tool and a release
management tool both require access to your AWS environment, create two separate service accounts with two
separate policies that define the minimum set of permissions for each tool.
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/security/guidelines-for-protecting-your-aws-account-while-usingprogrammatic-access/


QUESTION 3
Which of the following can a customer use to enable single sign-on (SSO) to the AWS Console?
A. Amazon Connect
B. AWS Directory Service
C. Amazon Pinpoint
D. Amazon Rekognition
Correct Answer: B
Single sign-on only works when used on a computer that is joined to the AWS Directory Service directory. It cannot be
used on computers that are not joined to the directory.
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/directoryservice/latest/admin-guide/ms_ad_single_sign_on.html


QUESTION 4
A company is considering migrating its applications to AWS. The company wants to compare the cost of running the
workload on-premises to running the equivalent workload on the AWS platform. Which tool can be used to perform this
comparison?
A. AWS Simple Monthly Calculator
B. AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) Calculator
C. AWS Billing and Cost Management console
D. Cost Explorer
Correct Answer: B
TCO calculator compare the cost of running your applications in an on-premises or colocation environment to AWS.
Reference: https://awstcocalculator.com


QUESTION 5
When architecting cloud applications, which of the following are a key design principle?
A. Use the largest instance possible
B. Provision capacity for peak load
C. Use the Scrum development process
D. Implement elasticity
Correct Answer: B
Cloud services main proposition is to provide elasticity through horizontal scaling. It\\’s already there. As for using
largest instance possible, it is not a design principle that helps cloud applications in anyway. Scrum development
process is not related to architecting. Therefore, a key principle is to provision your application for on-demand capacity.
Peak loads is something that cloud applications experience everyday. Peak load management should be a necessary
part of cloud application design principle.
Reference: https://d1.awsstatic.com/whitepapers/AWS_Cloud_Best_Practices.pdf

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QUESTION 1
A company is launching a new static website on Amazon S3 and Amazon CloudFront. The company wants to ensure
that all web requests go through only CloudFront.
How can a Solutions Architect meet this requirement?
A. Configure the S3 bucket policy to allow only CloudFront IP addresses to read objects.
B. Create IAM users in a group that has read access to the S3 bucket. Configure CloudFront to pass credentials to the
S3 bucket.
C. Create a CloudFront origin access identity (OAI), then update the S3 bucket policy to allow the OAI read access.
D. Convert the S3 bucket to an EC2 instance, then give CloudFront access to the instance by using security groups.
Correct Answer: C
To allow access to your Amazon S3 bucket only from a CloudFront distribution, first add an origin access identity (OAI)
to your distribution. Then, review your bucket policy and Amazon S3 access control list (ACL) to be sure that:
Only the OAI can access your bucket.
CloudFront can access the bucket on behalf of requesters.
Users can\\’t access the objects in other ways, such as by using Amazon S3 URLs.
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/cloudfront-access-to-amazon-s3/


QUESTION 2
A Solutions Architect is designing an application in AWS. The Architect must not expose the application or database tier
over the Internet for security reasons. The application must be low-cost and have a scalable front end. The databases
and application tier must have only one-way Internet access to download software and patch updates.
Which solution helps to meet these requirements?
A. Use a NAT Gateway as the front end for the application tier and to enable the private resources to have Internet
access.
B. Use an Amazon EC2-based proxy server as the front end for the application tier, and a NAT Gateway to allow
Internet access for private resources.
C. Use an ELB Classic Load Balancer as the front end for the application tier, and an Amazon EC2 proxy server to allow
Internet access for private resources.
D. Use an ELB Classic Load Balancer as the front end for the application tier, and a NAT Gateway to allow Internet
access for private resources.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A customer has an application that is used by enterprise customers outside of AWS. Some of these customers use
legacy firewalls that cannot whitelist by DNS name, but whitelist based only on IP address. The application is currently
deployed in two Availability Zones, with one EC2 instance in each that has Elastic IP addresses. The customer wants to
whitelist only two IP addresses, but the two existing EC2 instances cannot sustain the amount of traffic.
What can a Solutions Architect do to support the customer and allow for more capacity? (Choose two.)
A. Create a Network Load Balancer with an interface in each subnet, and assign a static IP address to each subnet.
B. Create additional EC2 instances and put them on standby. Remap an Elastic IP address to a standby instance in the
event of a failure.
C. Use Amazon Route 53 with a weighted, round-robin routing policy across the Elastic IP addresses to resolve one at a
time.
D. Add additional EC2 instances with Elastic IP addresses, and register them with Amazon Route 53
E. Switch the two existing EC2 instances for an Auto Scaling group, and register them with the Network Load Balancer.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
An application provides a feature that allows users to securely download private and personal files. The web server is
currently overwhelmed with serving files for download. A Solutions Architect must find a more effective solution to
reduce web server load and costs, and must allow users to download only their own files.
Which solution meets all requirements?
A. Store the files securely on Amazon S3 and have the application generate an Amazon S3 pre-signed URL for the user
to download.
B. Store the files in an encrypted Amazon EBS volume, and use a separate set of servers to serve the downloads.
C. Have the application encrypt the files and store them in the local Amazon EC2 Instance Store prior to serving them
up for download.
D. Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution to distribute and cache the files.
Correct Answer: A
Pre-signed S3 URLs are useful whenever you want to easily provide temporary access to a protected asset. There are
two common use cases when you may want to use pre-signed S3 URLs:
Simple, occasional sharing of private files.
Frequent, programmatic access to view or upload a file in an application.

QUESTION 5
A company has a legal requirement to store point-in-time copies of its Amazon RDS PostGreSQL database instance in facilities that are at least 200 miles apart.
Use of which of the following provides the easiest way to comply with this requirement?
A. Cross-region read replica
B. Multiple Availability Zone snapshot copy
C. Multiple Availability Zone read replica
D. Cross-region snapshot copy
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A Solutions Architect is creating an application running in an Amazon VPC that needs to access AWS Systems
Manager Parameter Store. Network security rules prohibit any route table entry with a 0.0.0.0/0 destination. What
infrastructure addition will allow access to the AWS service while meeting the requirements?
A. VPC peering
B. NAT instance
C. NAT gateway
D. AWS PrivateLink
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A company is running an ecommerce application on Amazon EC2 The application consists of a stateless web tier that
requires a minimum of 10 instances, and a peak of 250 instances to support the application\\’s usage The application
requires 50 instances 80% of the time
Which solution should be used to minimize costs?
A. Purchase Reserved Instances to cover 250 instances
B. Purchase Reserved Instances to cover 80 instances Use Spot Instances to cover the remaining instances
C. Purchase On-Demand Instances to cover 40 instances Use Spot Instances to cover the remaining instances
D. Purchase Reserved Instances to cover 50 instances Use On-Demand and Spot Instances to cover the remaining
instances
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A Solutions Architect is designing a solution for a media company that will stream large amounts of data from an
Amazon EC2 instance. The data streams are typically large and sequential, and must be able to support up to 500
MB/s.
Which storage type will meet the performance requirements of this application?
A. EBS Provisioned IOPS SSD
B. EBS General Purpose SSD
C. EBS Cold HDD
D. EBS Throughput Optimized HDD
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
An application runs on Amazon EC2 instances across multiple Availability Zones The instances run in an Amazon EC2
Auto Scaling group behind an Application Load Balancer The application performs best when the CPU utilization of the
EC2 instances is at or near 40%
What should a solutions architect do to maintain the desired performance across all instances m the group?
A. Use a simple scaling policy to dynamically scale the Auto Scaling group
B. Use a target tracking policy to dynamically scale the Auto Scaling group
C. Use an AWS Lambda function to update the desired Auto Scaling group capacity
D. Use scheduled scaling actions to scale up and scale down the Auto Scaling group
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
A company\\’s production application runs online transaction processing (OLTP) transactions on an Amazon RDS
MySQL DB instance The company is launching a new reporting tool that will access the same data The reporting tool
must be highly available and not impact the performance of the production application
How can this be achieved\\’?
A. Create hourly snapshots of the production RDS DB instance
B. Create a Multi-AZ RDS Read Replica of the production RDS DB instance
C. Create multiple RDS Read Replicas of the production RDS DB instance Place the Read Replicas in an Auto Scaling
group
D. Create a Single-AZ RDS Read Replica of the production RDS DB instance Create a second Single-AZ RDS Read
Replica from the replica
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of question that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is Independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server named
Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has a volume named Volume1.
Dynamic Access Control is configured. A resource property named Property1 was created in the domain.
You need to ensure that Property1 is set to a value of Big for all of the files in Volume1 that are larger than 10 MB.
Which tool should you use?
A. File Explorer
B. Shared Folders
C. Server Manager
D. Disk Management
E. Storage Explorer
F. Computer Management
G. System Configuration
H. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)
Correct Answer: H
Automatic File Classification of FSRM
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/solution-guides/deploy-automatic-fileclassification?demonstration-steps https:// blogs.technet.microsoft.com/filecab/2009/08/13/using-windows-powershellscripts-for-file-classification/

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain functional level is Windows Server
2016. The domain contains a member server named Server1.
You test Code Integrity on Server1 in audit mode.
You need to enforce the Code Integrity levels on all the Windows Server 2016 servers in the domain.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Easyhometraining 70-744 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

Easyhometraining 70-744 exam questions-q2-2

https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/datacentersecurity/2018/03/10/default-code-integrity-policy-for-windows-server/

QUESTION 3
Vout network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server
2016.
The domain contains a server named Serverl that has Microsoft Security Compliance Manager (SCM) 4.0 installed.
You export the baseline shown in the following exhibit.

Easyhometraining 70-744 exam questions-q3

 You have a server named Server2 that is a member of a workgroup.
You copy the (2617e9b1-9672-492b-aefa-0505054848c2) folder to Server2.
You need to deploy the baseline settings to Server2.
What should you do?
A. Download, install, and then fun the Lgpo.exe command.
B. From Group Policy Management import a Group Policy object (GPO).
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Restore-GPO cmdlet.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Import-GPO cmdlet.
E. From a command prompt run the secedit.exe command and specify the /import parameter.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://anytecho.wordpress.com/2015/05/22/importing-group-policies-using-powershell-almost/

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1.
You need to configure PowerShell logging to capture dynamic code generation. The solution must minimize the number
of events that are logged.
What should you configure?
A. protected event logging
B. script block logging
C. module logging
D. system-wide transcription
Correct Answer: C
References: https://www.rootusers.com/enable-and-configure-module-script-block-and-transcription-logging-in-windowspowershell/

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client
computers run Windows 10.
The relevant objects in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.
 

Easyhometraining 70-744 exam questions-q5

You need to assign User1 the right to restore files and folders on Server1 and Server2.
Solution: You add User1 to the Backup Operators group in contoso.com.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc771990(v=ws.11).aspx
users.The solution would let User1 to backup files and folders on domain controllers for contoso.com instead.

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs Windows Server 2016. The services on Server1 are shown in the following output.

Easyhometraining 70-744 exam questions-q6

Server1 has the AppLocker rules configured as shown in the exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.) Rule1 and Rule2 are
configured a$ shown in the following table.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

Easyhometraining 70-744 exam questions-q6-2

Correct Answer:

Easyhometraining 70-744 exam questions-q6-3

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You manage a file server that runs Windows Server 2016. The file server contains the volumes configured as shown in
the following table.

Easyhometraining 70-744 exam questions-q7

You need to encrypt DevFiles by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (ButLocker).
Solution: You run the Enable-BitLocker cmdlet.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
 References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/bitlocker/enable-bitlocker?view=win10-ps

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an internal network and a perimeter network. The internal network contains an Active Directory
forest named contoso.com. You deploy five servers to the perimeter network.
All of the servers run Windows Server 2016 and are the members of a workgroup.
You need to apply a security baseline named Perimeter.inf to the servers in the perimeter network.
What should you use to apply Perimeter.inf?
A. Local Computer Policy
B. Security Configuration Wizard (SCW)
C. Group Policy Management
D. Server Manager
Correct Answer: A
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/get-started/deprecated-features
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/secguide/2016/01/21/lgpo-exe-local-group-policy-object-utility-v1-0/
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb742512.aspx

Easyhometraining 70-744 exam questions-q8

You need to identify which server you must modify to support the planned implementation. Which server should you
identify?
A. Server1
B. Server2
C. Server3
D. Server4
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/access-protection/credential-guard/credentialguardrequirements

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario b
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the
domain is Windows Server 2008 R2.
The domain contains the servers configured as shown m the following table.

Easyhometraining 70-744 exam questions-q10

All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10.
You have an organizational unit (OU) named Marketing that contains the computers in the marketing department You
have an OU named Finance that contains the computers in the finance department You have an OU named
AppServers
that contains application servers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the Marketing OU. A GPO
named GP2 is linked to the AppServers OU.
You install Windows Defender on Nano1.
End of repeated scenario
You need to disable SMB 1.0 on Server2.
What should you do?
A. From File Server Resource Manager, create a classification rule.
B. From the properties of each network adapter on Server2. modify the bindings.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set -SmbClientConfiguration cmdlet.
D. From Server Manager, remove a Windows feature.
Correct Answer: D
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/2696547/how-to-enable-and-disable-smbv1-smbv2-and-smbv3-inwindows-andwindows

Easyhometraining 70-744 exam questions-q10-2

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs Windows Server 2016.
The hardware configuration on Server1 meets the requirements for Credential Guard.
You need to enable Credential Guard on Server1.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Easyhometraining 70-744 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:  Easyhometraining 70-744 exam questions-q11-2

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/access-protection/credential-guard/credential-guard-requirements The
Virtualization-based security requires:-64-bit CPU-CPU virtualization extensions plus extended page tables-Windows
hypervisor https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/access-protection/credential-guard/credential-guardmanage#hardware-readiness-tool

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Microsoft Certified Solutions Associate 70-743 dumps practice questions

QUESTION 1
You implement Software Defined Networking (SDN) by using the Network Controller server role.
You have a virtual network named VNET1 that contains servers used by developers.
You need to ensure that only devices from the 192.168.0.0/24 subnet can access the virtual machine in VNET1.
What should you configure?
A. Dynamic Access Control
B. role-based access control
C. a network security group (NSG)
D. a universal security group
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers
named DC1 and DC2.
DC1 holds the RID master operations role.
DC1 fails and cannot be repaired.
You need to move the RID role to DC2.
Solution: On DC2, you open Active Directory Users and Computers, click Operations Masters…, verify that
dc2.contoso.com is listed on the RID tab, and click Change.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
There are 3 ways of transferring FSMO roles:
Using graphical user interface available on a DC or any server/workstation with Administrative Tools / Remote Server
Administration Tools installed.
Using the command-line tool called ntdsutil.
Using the PowerShell cmdlet Move-ADDirectoryServerOperationMasterRole.
References:
http://kpytko.pl/active-directory-domain-services/transferring-fsmo-roles-from-gui/
http://kpytko.pl/active-directory-domain-services/transferring-fsmo-roles-with-powershell/
http://kpytko.pl/active-directory-domain-services/transferring-fsmo-roles-from-command-line/

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains two servers named
Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. The domain contains three users named User1, User 2 and User
3. Server 1 has a share named Share1 that has the following configurations.

Easyhometraining 70-743 exam questions-q3

 The Share permissions for Share1 are configured as shown in Share1 Exhibit.

Easyhometraining 70-743 exam questions-q3-2

Share1 contains a file named File1.txt. The Advanced Security settings for File1.txt are configured as shown in the
File1.txt exhibit.

Easyhometraining 70-743 exam questions-q3-3

Select the appropriate statement from below. Select Yes if the state is true , otherwise no.
Hot Area:

Easyhometraining 70-743 exam questions-q3-4

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Hyper-V named Server1. The network adapters on Server1 have single root I/O virtualization (SR-IOV)
enabled.
Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to identify whether SR-IOV is used by VM1.
Solution: You sign in to VM1. You open Device Manager and view the properties of the network adapters.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 and Server2 have the HyperV server role installed and are nodes in a failover cluster.
On Server1, an administrator creates a virtual machine named VM1.
You need to configure VM1 for high availability.
Which tool should you use?
A. the clussvc.exe command
B. the cluster.exe command
C. the Computer Management snap-in
D. the configurehyperv.exe command
E. the Disk Management snap-in
F. the Failover Cluster Manager snap-in
G. the Hyper-V Manager snap-in
H. the Server Manager app
Correct Answer: F
References: http://windowsitpro.com/hyper-v/make-vm-highly-available-windows-server-2012

QUESTION 6
Server1 download update from Microsoft update.
You have Server2 that must synchronize update from Server1.
Have firewall separate between Server1 and Server2. Which port should to open on Server2 to synchronize?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 3389
D. 8530
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You have a container host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to start a Hyper-V container on Server1.
Which parameter should you use with the docker run command?
A. –runtime
B. –isolation
C. –entrypoint
D. –privileged
E. –expose
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has two network adaptors named
NK1 and NIC2. Server2 has two virtual switches named vSwitch1 and vSwitch2. N1C1 connects to vSwitch1. NIC2
connects to vSwitch2
Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 has two network adapters named vmNIC1 and vmNIC1.
VmNIC1 connects to vSwitch1. VmNIC2 connects to vSwitch2.
You need to create a NIC team on VM1.
What should you run on VM1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Easyhometraining 70-743 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

Easyhometraining 70-743 exam questions-q8-2

QUESTION 9
You use Application Request Routing (ARR) to make internal web applications available to the Internet by using NTLM
authentication.
You need to replace ARR by using the Web Application Proxy.
Which server role should you deploy first?
A. Active Directory Rights Management Services
B. Active Directory Federation Services
C. Active Directory Certificate Services
D. Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has the DNS Server role installed. The advanced DNS properties for Server1 are shown in the Advanced DNS
exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Server2 is configured to use Server1 as a DNS server. Server2 has the following IP configuration.

Easyhometraining 70-743 exam questions-q10

Select the appropriate selection if statement is “Yes” or No.

Easyhometraining 70-743 exam questions-q10-2

QUESTION 11
Your company has 10 offices. Each office has a local network that contains several Hyper-V hosts that run Windows
Server 2016. All of the offices are connected by high speed, low latency WAN links.
You need to ensure that you can use QoS policies for Live Migration traffic between the offices.
Which component should you install?
A. the Canary Network Diagnostics feature
B. the Network Controller server role
C. the Data Center Bridging feature
D. the Multipath I/O feature
E. the Routing role service
Correct Answer: C
NICs with a standard NIC team and two RDMA NICs
This configuration emphasizes the use of RDMA. To converge other workloads such as Live Migration, Cluster and
Management on the same RDMA NICs, the NICs must also support Data Center Bridging (DCB). To provide high
availability
to Storage, you can enable Microsoft Multipath I/O (MPIO).
With this configuration, you can apply all QoS features, including Bandwidth Management, Classification and Tagging,
and PFC in the management operating system.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj735302(v=ws.11).aspx
 

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest has three sites located in London,
Paris and Berlin.
The London site contains a web server named Web1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to configure Web1 as an HTTP content server for the hosted cache servers located in the Paris and Berlin
sites.
Solution: You install the Deployment Server role service, and then you restart the World Wide Web Publishing Service.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a server administrator at a company named Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso has a Windows Server 2016 Hyper-V environment configured as shown in the following table 

Easyhometraining 70-743 exam questions-q13

All of the virtual switches are of the external type.
You need to ensure that you can move virtual machines between the hosts without causing the virtual machines to
disconnect from the network.
Solution: You implement live migration by using Host3 and Host4.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Live migration is a Hyper-V feature that allows you to transparently move running Virtual Machines from one Hyper-V
host to another without perceived downtime.
Common requirements for any form of live migration: Two (or more) servers running Hyper-V that:
-Support hardware virtualization.
-Use processors from the same manufacturer. For example, all AMD or all Intel.
-Belong to either the same Active Directory domain, or to domains that trust each other.
Virtual machines must be configured to use virtual hard disks or virtual Fibre Channel disks (no physical disks).
Use of an isolated network, physically or through another networking technology such as VLANs, is recommended for
live migration network traffic.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windowsserver-2012-R2-and-2012/hh831435(v=ws.11)

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Best questions to prepare for the Microsoft MCSA 70-742 study guide

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA: Windows Server 2016
Exam Code: 70-742
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You deploy a standalone root certification authority (CA) named CA1.
You need to autoenroll domain computers for certificates by using a custom certificate template.
What should you do first?
A. Modify the Policy Module for CA1.
B. Modify the Exit Module for CA1.
C. Install a standalone subordinate CA.
D. Install an enterprise subordinate CA.
Correct Answer: D
You can\\’t create templates or configure auto-enrollment on a standalone CA.


QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
A user named User1 is in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You need to enable User1 to sign in as [email protected]
You need a list of groups to which User1 is either a direct member or an indirect member.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Set -Aduser User1 -UserPricncipalName [email protected]
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
Domain users use smart cards to sign in to their client computer.
Some users report that it takes a long time to sign in to their computer and that the logon attempt times out, so they
must restart the sign in process.
You discover that the issues to checking the certificate revocation list (CRL) of the smart card certificates.
You need to resolve the issue without diminishing the security of the smart card logons.
What should you do?
A. From the properties of the smart card\\’s certificate template, modify the Request Handling settings.
B. From the properties of the smart card\\’s certificate template, modify the Issuance Requirements settings.
C. Deactivate certificate revocation checks on the computers.
D. Implement an Online Certification Status Protocol (OCSP) responder.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The user account for a user named User1 is in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You need to enable User1 to sign in as [email protected]
Solution: From Active Directory Users and Computers, you set the E-mail property of User1 to [email protected]
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
deployment.
The AD FS deployment contains the following:
*
An AD FS server named server1.contoso.com that runs Windows Server 2016
*
A Web Application Proxy used to publish AD FS
*
A LIPN that uses the contoso.com suffix
*
A namespace named adfs.contoso.com
You create a Microsoft Office 365 tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com. You use Microsoft Azure Active Directory
Connect (AD Connect) to synchronize all of the users and the UPNs from the contoso.com forest to Office 365.
You need to configure federation between Office 365 and the on-premises deployment of Active Directory.
Which three commands should you run in sequence from Server1? To answer, move the appropriate commands from
the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Easyhometraining 70-742 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

Easyhometraining 70-742 exam questions-q5-2

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains a domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains three domain controllers.
A domain controller named lon-dc1 fails. You are unable to repair lon-dc1.
You need to prevent the other domain controllers from attempting to replicate to lon-dc1.
Solution: From Active Directory Sites and Trusts, you transfer the operations master roles from lon-dc1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You have an enterprise certification authority (CA) named ContosoCA. Recovery agents are configured for ContosoCA.
You duplicate the User certificate template and name it Cont_User. You plan to issue the certificates based on
Cont_User to provide users with the ability to encrypt email messages and files.
You need to ensure that the recovery agents can access any user-encrypted files and email messages if the users lose
their certificate.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Recovery Agents settings for ContosoCA.
B. Issue a certificate based on a key recovery agent certificate.
C. Modify the Request Handling settings for Cont_User.
D. On ContosoCA, configure the Key Recovery Agent template as a certificate template to issue.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named
Server1 and a domain controller named DC1. Both servers run Windows Server 2016. Server1 is used to perform
administrative tasks, including managing Group Polices.
After maintenance is performed on DC1, you open a Group Policy object (GPO) from Server1 as shown in the exhibit.

Easyhometraining 70-742 exam questions-q8

You need to be able to view all of the Administrative Templates settings in GPO1. What should you do?
A. From File Explorer, copy the administrative templates from \\contoso.com\SYSVOL\contoso.com\Policies to the
PolicyDefinitions folder on Server1.
B. From File Explorer, delete \\contoso.com\SYSVOL\contoso.com\Policies\PolicyDefinitions.
C. From File Explorer, delete the PolicyDefinitions folder from Server1.
D. From Group Policy Management, configure WMI Filtering for GPO1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains the Active Directory forests and domains shown in the following table:

Easyhometraining 70-742 exam questions-q9

A two-way forest trust exists between ForestA and ForestB.
Each domain in ForestB contains user accounts that are used to manage servers.
You need to ensure that the user accounts used to manage the servers in ForestB are members of the Server
Operators in ForestA.
Solution: In each domain in ForestB, you create a global group that contains the user accounts of the respective
domain. You create a universal group in DomainBRoot. You add the new global groups to the new universal group. You
modify
the membership of the Server Operators in ForestA.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/access-control/active-directorysecurity-groups#bkmk-serveroperators

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 5,000 user accounts.
You have a Group Policy object (GPO) named DomainPolicy that is linked to the domain and a GPO named DCPolicy
that is linked to the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU).
You need to use the application control policy settings to prevent several applications from running on the network.
What should you do?
A. From the Computer Configuration node of DCPolicy, modify Security Settings.
B. From the Computer Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Security Settings.
C. From the Computer Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Administrative Templates.
D. From the User Configuration node of DCPolicy, modify Security Settings.
E. From the User Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Folder Redirection.
F. From user Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Administrative Templates.
G. From Preferences in the User Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Windows Settings.
H. From Preferences in the Computer Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Windows Settings.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named conIoso.com. The domain contains a server named
Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain joined computers have Fast logon Optimization enabled You need
to ensure that the next time a user signs in to Server1, the user-targeted Group Policy objects [GPOs) are processed
fully
before the user gains access to the desktop.
What should you run on Server1?
A. secedit with the/configure switch
B. gpupdate with the /Sync switch
C. Invoke-GPupdate with the -Boot switch
D. gpupddte with the /wait switch
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains two network domains sales.fabrikam.com, and contoso.com,
You recently added a site named Europe.
The forest contains four users who are members of the groups shown in the following table.

Easyhometraining 70-742 exam questions-q12

You need to create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP01 and to link GPO1 to the Europe site.
Which users can perform each task? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point
Hot Area:

Easyhometraining 70-742 exam questions-q12-2

Correct Answer:

Easyhometraining 70-742 exam questions-q12-3

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains three domains named
contoso.com, corp.contoso.com, and ext.contoso.com. The forest contains three Active Directory sites named Site1,
Site2, and Site3.
You have the three administrators as described in the following table.

Easyhometraining 70-742 exam questions-q13

You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. Which administrator or administrators can link GPO1 to Site2?
A. Admin1 and Admin2 only
B. Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3
C. Admin3 only
D. Admin1 and Admin3 only
Correct Answer: D
To link an existing GPO to a site, domain, or OU, you must have Link GPOs permission on that site, domain, or OU. By
default, only domain administrators and enterprise administrators have this privilege for domains and OUs. Enterprise
administrators and domain administrators of the forest root domain have this privilege for sites.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732979(v=ws.11).aspx

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Fortinet NSE 7 Network Security Architect NSE7_EFW-6.2 Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit, which contains partial outputs from two routing debug commands.

Easyhometraining NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions-q1

Which outbound interface will FortiGate use to route web traffic from internal users to the Internet?
A. port3
B. port2
C. port1
D. Both port1 and port2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two conditions must be met for a statistic route to be active in the routing table? (Choose two.)
A. The link health monitor (if configured) is up.
B. There is no other route, to the same destination, with a higher distance.
C. The outgoing interface is up.
D. The next-hop IP address is up.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit, which contains the output of a BGP debug command.

Easyhometraining NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions-q3

Which statement about the exhibit is true?
A. The local router has received a total of three BGP prefixes from all peers.
B. The local router has not established a TCP session with 100.64.3.1.
C. Since the counters were last reset, the 10.200.3.1 peer has never been down.
D. The local router BGP state is OpenConfirm with the 10.127.0.75 peer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about bulk configuration changes using FortiManager CLI scripts are correct? (Choose two.)
A. When executed on the Device Database, you must use the installation wizard to apply the changes to the managed
FortiGate.
B. When executed on the Policy Package, ADOM database, changes are applied directly to the managed FortiGate.
C. When executed on the All FortiGate in ADOM, changes are automatically installed without creating a new revision
history.
D. When executed on the Remote FortiGate directly, administrators do not have the option to review the changes prior
to installation.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit, which contains a TCL script configuration on FortiManager.

Easyhometraining NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions-q5

An administrator has configured the TCL script on FortiManager, but failed to apply any changes to the managed device
after being executed. Why did the TCL script fail to make any changes to the managed device?
A. Changes in an interface configuration can only be done by CLI script.
B. The TCL script must start with #include .
C. Incomplete commands are ignored in TCL scripts.
D. The TCL command run_cmd has not been created.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit, which contains a partial routing table.

Easyhometraining NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions-q6

Assuming all the appropriate firewall policies are configured, which two pings will FortiGate route? (Choose two.)
A. Source IP address: 10.72.3.52, Destination IP address: 10.1.0.254
B. Source IP address: 10.73.9.10, Destination IP address: 10.72.3.15
C. Source IP address: 10.10.4.24, Destination IP address: 10.72.3.20
D. Source IP address: 10.1.0.10, Destination IP address: 10.64.1.52
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
How does FortiManager handle FortiGate requests from FortiGate devices, when it is configured as a local FDS?
A. FortiManager will respond to update requests only from a managed device.
B. FortiManager can download and maintain local copies of FortiGuard databases.
C. FortiManager supports only FortiGuard push update to managed devices.
D. FortiManager does not support web filter rating requests.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two configuration settings change the behavior for content-inspected traffic while FortiGate is in conserve mode?
(Choose two.)
A. IPS failopen
B. mem failopen
C. AV failopen
D. UTM failopen
Correct Answer: AC
 

QUESTION 9
What is the diagnose test application ipsmonitor 99 command used for?
A. To enable IPS bypass mode
B. To provide information regarding IPS sessions
C. To disable the IPS engine
D. To restart all IPS engines and monitors
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit, which contains the partial output of an IKE real-time debug.

Easyhometraining NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions-q10 Which two statements about this debug output are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The initiator has provided remote as its IPsec peer ID.
B. The negotiation is using AES128 encryption with CBC hash.
C. The remote gateway IP address is 10.0.0.1.
D. It shows a phase 1 negotiation.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
Which three conditions are required for two FortiGate devices to form an OSP adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF costs match
B. OSPF peer IDs match
C. Hello and dead intervals match
D. OSPF IP MTUs match
E. IP addresses are in the same subnet
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 12
An administrator wants to capture ESP traffic between two FortiGate devices using the built-in sniffer.
If the administrator knows that there is no NAT device located between both FortiGate devices, which command should
the administrator execute?
A. diagnose sniffer packet any `esp\\’
B. diagnose sniffer packet any `udp port 4500\\’
C. diagnose sniffer packet any `udp port 500\\’
D. diagnose sniffer packet any `tcp port 500 or tcp port 4500\\’
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two statements about application layer test commands are true? (Choose two.)
A. They are used to filter real-time debugs.
B. They display real-time application debugs.
C. Some of them can be used to restart an application.
D. Some of them display statistics and configuration information about a feature or process.
Correct Answer: CD

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Atlassian Jira Project Administrator ACP-600 practice questions

QUESTION 1
You Update the My Changes setting in your user profile to Do not notify me. Which statement is true?
A. You will only be notified by email about issue operations.
B. You will be opted out of all email notifications.
C. You will not be notified by email of any changes you make.
D. You will only be notified by email about workflow events.
Correct Answer: C
By default all users start with preferences to not be notified by their own updates.
Reference: https://confluence.atlassian.com/jirakb/how-to-update-all-user-profiles-for-the-notify-meoption-292126811.html

QUESTION 2
Which statement is correct about archiving a version in Jira?
A. Versions can be archived only in Jira Software projects, not Jira Business projects.
B. Archived versions cannot be selected in either the Fix Version/s dropdown, or the Affects Version/s field dropdown.
C. Archived versions can be selected only in the FixVersion/s field dropdown, not the Affects Version/s field dropdown.
D. Versions can be archived in Jira only if they do not contain any unresolved issues.
E. Archived versions will be grouped as Archived Versions in the FixVersion/s field dropdown.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Teresa is able to see the Start Progress transition but not the Approve transition on an issue. Her co-worker is able to
see both. Identify two possible causes why Teresa can NOT see the Approve transition. (Choose two.)
A. Teresa is not listed in the correct security level for the issue.
B. Teresa does not have the Transition Issues permission.
C. Teresa is not in the correct group or project role.
D. Teresa does not meet the condition on the Approve transition.
E. Teresa does not have the correct global permission.
F. Teresa does not have the correct Application access.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
In my project, I can create issues and assign them to other users. However, the other users are not able to assign
issues to me. What are two possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
A. I am not a component lead.
B. I do not have the Assignable User permission.
C. The other users do not have the Assignable User permission.
D. The other users do not have the Edit Issues permission.
E. The other users do not have the Assign Issues permission.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
When creating a project from a template, which two schemes will be unique for the new project? (Choose two.)
A. Notification Scheme
B. Issue Security Scheme
C. Permissions Scheme
D. Issue Type Scheme
E. Field Configuration Scheme
F. Workflow Scheme
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Users typically forget to add components when they create new issues. As a result, most of the newly created issues
get assigned to Tom, who is the project lead.
Tom reviews all of the issues, and wants to triage them based on component selection. But when he edits an issue and
adds a component, the assignee does not change.
Why does the assignee not change when adding a component to an issue?
A. Auto-assignment with components only works when creating issues.
B. The project\\’s default assignee overwrites the value of the component lead.
C. The default assignee of the selected components is set to Project default.
D. The Assignee field additionally needs to be changed to Automatic.
E. The selected components do not have a component lead set.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://community.atlassian.com/t5/Jira-questions/How-can-I-change-default-assignee-user/qaq-p/88040

QUESTION 7
Analyze the workflow scheme for the SSP project shown below:

Easyhometraining ACP-600 exam questions-q7

Which change would require an update to the workflow scheme?
A. Sub-task and Bug need a different set of statuses.
B. Task and Sub-Task need a different screen when being edited.
C. Story and Epic need a different set of statuses.
D. Story and Task need a different screen when being created.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about configuring issue types in a project?
A. Standard and sub-task issue types must always have their own workflows.
B. Epics cannot have sub-tasks in a Jira Software project.
C. There are three levels of issue types in a Jira Software project; Epic, Story, Sub-task.
D. Sub-task issue types can have a different issue security level than their parent.
E. An issue type scheme can have unlimited sub-task issue types.
F. You can disable the Create Sub-task operation on some standard issue types.
Correct Answer: F
Reference: https://blog.testlodge.com/how-to-write-test-cases-in-jira/

QUESTION 9
You need a field which meets the following requirements:
It indicates the importance of an issue.
It must be used in all projects.
It must allow only a single value.
It must have a default.
It must have different options in different projects.
It must allow options to be disabled.
Which field meets these requirements?
A. Component/s system field
B. Select List (single choice) custom field
C. Checkboxes custom field
D. Labels system field
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You need a new project to track Software Defects.
The entire setup should be identical to the Hardware Defect project.
You ask your Jira administrator to create a new project with a shared configuration, and use the Hardware Defect
project as the source.
Which three elements will you need to manually configure to achieve an identical setup? (Choose three.)
A. Project description
B. Security levels
C. Screens
D. Components
E. Versions
F. Priorities
Correct Answer: ADE
Reference: https://confluence.atlassian.com/confeval/jira-service-desk-evaluator-resources/jira-service-desk-create-withshared-configuration-feature

QUESTION 11
Max and Emma both have Jira Software application access, and they are members of the same groups and project
roles in the DEV project.
However, Max can rank issues on the project\\’s Kanban board, while Emma cannot.
Which configuration will definitely explain the observed behavior?
A. Max and Emma have different global permissions.
B. Only Max has a valid Jira Software license.
C. Only Max is a project administrator of the DEV project.
D. Max and Emma are associated with different security levels.
E. Only Max has been granted the Schedule Issues permission in the DEV project.
F. Max is a component lead and Emma is a project lead in the DEV project.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
A project uses two issue types named Task and Sub-task which share the workflow shown below.

Easyhometraining ACP-600 exam questions-q12

What is the maximum number of screens that can be used in the current project configuration?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 8
D. 5
E. 6
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://marketplace.atlassian.com/apps/1214484/issue-type-resolutions-forjira?hosting=serverandtab=overview

QUESTION 13
You have gathered workflow requirements:
Sue wants to put issues ON HOLD from anywhere in the workflow.
Dave wants to restrict who can put issues ON HOLD.
You contact a Jira administrator to request appropriate workflow changes to address their requirements.
Which change do you NOT request?
A. A condition on the incoming transitions going in to ON HOLD
B. A global transition to the ON HOLD status
C. Outgoing transitions from the ON HOLD status
D. A security-level on the ON HOLD status
E. A new status called ON HOLD
Correct Answer: A

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CompTIA 220-1001 Practice Test Questions

QUESTION 1
Multiple users report that the network printer, which is connected through the print server, is not printing.
Which of the following should a technician do FIRST to remedy this situation?
A. Replace the USB cable.
B. Reinstall the drivers on users\\’ PCs.
C. have users restart their PCs.
D. Clear the print queue.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A user is having a problem with printing a specific document type.
The network printer OCP shows that the printer is online with no errors. Other users are not having the same issue. The
user sends the document to another printer and the document prints. Which of the following should a technician do
FIRST in troubleshooting the problem?
A. Stop and restart the PC print spooler service.
B. Verify the user is sending the document to the correct printer queue.
C. Have each user send the same document to the correct printer queue.
D. Stop and restart the print server queues, and then have the user resend the document.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A user is experiencing issues synchronizing a smartphone. The user is able to connect to individual services, but each
requires a different password. Which of the following needs to be configured to allow the user to access web services
securely with a unique password?
A. SIM
B. SMB
C. SSL
D. SSO
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A technician would like to install an internal storage drive for a computer. Which of the following cable connectors would
MOST likely be used to transfer data? (Select TWO).
A. USB-C
B. IDE
C. SATA
D. USB-A
E. Motex
F. Lightning
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
A user accidentally spills liquid on a laptop. The user wants the device to be fixed and would like to know how much it
will cost.
Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT to verify if the device is repairable before committing to a
price? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the case and organize the parts.
B. Document the screw locations.
C. Search the Internet for repair tutorials.
D. Consult colleagues for advice.
E. Place the device in rice for a few days.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
A user printed several documents to a shared network copier and noticed that they have very faint color density. A
technician investigates the issue and verifies that the printer had a maintenance kit installed recently. Which of the
following next steps will MOST likely resolve the issue? (Select two.)
A. Replace the toner cartridges
B. Replace the fuser module
C. Clean the paper tray rollers
D. Adjust the printer settings
E. Replace the developer
F. Empty the waste toner bottlers
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
A technician is upgrading the graphics card an SFF PC. Which of the following is MOST important considering the type
of card to be installed?
A. The card\\’s driver compatibility
B. The GDDR of the card
C. The size of the card
D. The cooling solution on the card
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A technician manually configured the wireless connection on the Chief Information Officer\\’s (ClO\\’s) new laptop so it
can communicate with the network at the office The CIO now is having trouble connecting to a guest WiFi hotspot While
the device has a gateway address and says it is connected, the CIO cannot access company email Which of the
following would BEST resolve the issue?
A. Move the ClO\\’s laptop closer to the access point to obtain a better RF signal
B. Restart the wireless connection to obtain a self-assigned APIPA address
C. Assign a different IP address to the device in conflict with the ClO\\’s laptop
D. Set the network connection to use DHCP instead of a static address
E. Change the network\\’s SSID to a mobile hotspot to access company email
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A technician is configuring a new web server and must have over 10TB of fault-tolerant storage, while minimizing the
number of failure points. The applications on the server also require the highest performance available. Which of the
following configurations would the technician MOST likely select?
A. RAID 0 with 1500rpm 15TB drives
B. RAID 1 with 1000rpm 8TB drives
C. RAID 5 with 7200rpm 5TB drives
D. RAID 10 with 5400rpm 6TB drives
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A technician is connecting a PoE enabled phone and needs to run the drop from the switch that is 55 meters (180.4
feet) away. Which of the following cable types would be the MOST suitable for this purpose?
A. Fiber
B. Coaxial
C. CAT3
D. CAT6
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A technician has been asked to fix a problem with a projector. The projector lamp turns off for brief periods during a
demonstration. After the technician replaced the lamp, the problem continued with an added message that appears just
before the lamp turns off. Which of the following MOST likely need to be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Reset the lamp life counter
B. Replace the cooling fan
C. Adjust the brightness
D. Update the laptop video driver
E. Install a higher lumen lamp
F. Change the video resolution
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
About one week ago, access to files on a network server became significantly slower. Today, network files are
completely unavailable. A technician is able to make a remote connection to the server. Which of the following should
the technician check NEXT?
A. RAID 5 array
B. NIC configuration
C. Available storage space
D. RAM utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A systems administrator is configuring a server to host several virtual machines. The administrator configures the server
and is ready to begin provisioning the virtual machines.
Which of the following features should the administrator utilize to complete the task?
A. Hypervisor
B. Disk management
C. Terminal services
D. Device Manager
E. Virtual LAN
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What word is missing from the following SQL statement? insert into tablename ________(909, \\’text\\’); (Please specify
the missing word using lower-case letters only.)
Correct Answer: values

QUESTION 2
Which of the following may occur as a consequence of using the command ifconfig? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. New name servers may be added to the resolver configuration.
B. Network interfaces may become active or inactive.
C. The routing table may change.
D. IP addresses may change.
E. The system\\’s host name may change.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 3
Which of the following commands can be used to display the local routing table? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. ifconfig
B. dig
C. netstat
D. route
E. trackroute
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
With syslog, what is a facility?
A. Facilities are different connection interfaces to syslog. Each facility has its own device in /dev/syslog/.
B. From syslog\\’s point of view, each Unix process that issues messages is a facility.
C. Facilities describe the severity of a log message such as emerg or info.
D. When using remote logging, the hostname of the server that generated a message is called facility.
E. Facilities describe categories or groups of messages such as mail or auth.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the command mailq?
A. It fetches new emails from a remote server using POP3 or IMAP.
B. It is a multi-user mailing list manager.
C. It is a proprietary tool contained only in the qmail MTA.
D. It queries the mail queue of the local MTA.
E. It is a command-line based tool for reading and writing emails.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following configuration files should be modified to globally set shell variables for all users?
A. /etc/bashrc
B. /etc/profile
C. ~/.bash_profile
D. /etc/.bashrc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What is the name of the simple graphical login manager that comes with a vanilla X11 installation? (Specify ONLY the
command without any path or parameters.)
A. xdm
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
With X11 forwarding in ssh, what environment variable is automatically set in the remote host shell that is not set when
X11 forwarding is not enabled? (Specify only the environment variable without any additional commands or values.)
Correct Answer: DISPLAY, $DISPLAY

QUESTION 9
What output will the following command produce?
seq 1 5 20
A. 1
B. 1
C. 1
D. 2
E. 5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which keyword must be listed in the hosts option of the Name Service Switch configuration file in order to make host
lookups consult the /etc/hosts file?
Correct Answer: files

QUESTION 11
Which command, depending on its options, can display the open network connections, the routing tables, as well as
network interface statistics. (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)
A. netstat -or- /bin/netstat -or- ss -or- /usr/bin/ss
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which command is used to sync the hardware clock to the system clock? (Specify ONLY the command without any path
or parameters.)
A. hwclock -or- /sbin/hwclock -or- /usr/sbin/hwclock
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which command can be used to delete a group from a Linux system?
A. groupdel
B. groupmod
C. groups
D. groupedit
Correct Answer: A

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Exam AI-100: Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution (beta): https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-ai-100.aspx

Candidates for this exam analyze requirements for AI cloud-based and hybrid AI solutions, recommends appropriate tools and technologies, and implements solutions that meet scalability and performance requirements.

Candidates are aware of the various components that make up the Microsoft Azure AI portfolio, related open source frameworks and
technologies, and available data storage options. Candidates use their understanding of cost models, capacity, and best practices to
architect and implement AI solutions.

Candidates should have a working knowledge of basic statistics, data ethics, and data privacy

pass4itsure ai-100 Skills measured

  • Analyze solution requirements (20-25%)
  • Design solutions (30-35%)
  • Integrate AI models into solutions (25-30%)
  • Deploy and manage solutions (20-25%)

Latest effective Cisco AI-100 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
You have Azure IoT Edge devices that generate streaming data.
On the devices, you need to detect anomalies in the data by using Azure Machine Learning models. Once an anomaly
is detected, the devices must add information about the anomaly to the Azure IoT Hub stream.
Solution: You expose a Machine Learning model as an Azure web service.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead use Azure Stream Analytics and REST API.
Note. Available in both the cloud and Azure IoT Edge, Azure Stream Analytics offers built-in machine learning based
anomaly detection capabilities that can be used to monitor the two most commonly occurring anomalies: temporary and
persistent.
Stream Analytics supports user-defined functions, via REST API, that call out to Azure Machine Learning endpoints.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-machine-learning-anomaly-detection

QUESTION 2
You are designing an AI solution that will use IoT devices to gather data from conference attendees, and then later
analyze the data. The IoT devices will connect to an Azure IoT hub.
You need to design a solution to anonymize the data before the data is sent to the IoT hub.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q2Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q2-1Step 1: Create a storage container
ASA Edge jobs run in containers deployed to Azure IoT Edge devices.
Step 2: Create an Azure Stream Analytics Edge Job
Azure Stream Analytics (ASA) on IoT Edge empowers developers to deploy near-real-time analytical intelligence closer
to IoT devices so that they can unlock the full value of device-generated data.
Scenario overview:

pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q2-2

QUESTION 3
Your company has 1,000 AI developers who are responsible for provisioning environments in Azure. You need to
control the type, size, and location of the resources that the developers can provision. What should you use?
A. Azure Key Vault
B. Azure service principals
C. Azure managed identities
D. Azure Security Center
E. Azure Policy
Correct Answer: B
When an application needs access to deploy or configure resources through Azure Resource Manager in Azure Stack,
you create a service principal, which is a credential for your application. You can then delegate only the necessary
permissions to that service principal.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-create-service-principals

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen. You are developing an application that uses an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster.
You are troubleshooting a node issue.
You need to connect to an AKS node by using SSH.
Solution: You create a managed identity for AKS, and then you create an SSH connection.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead add an SSH key to the node, and then you create an SSH connection.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/ssh

QUESTION 5
You are designing a solution that will ingest temperature data from IoT devices, calculate the average temperature, and
then take action based on the aggregated data. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Minimize the amount of uploaded data.
Take action based on the aggregated data as quickly as possible.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q5Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q5-1Box 1: Azure Functions
Azure Function is a (serverless) service to host functions (little piece of code) that can be used for e. g. event driven
applications.
General rule is always difficult since everything depends on your requirement but if you have to analyze a data stream,
you should take a look at Azure Stream Analytics and if you want to implement something like a serverless event driven
or
timer-based application, you should check Azure Function or Logic Apps.
Note: Azure IoT Edge allows you to deploy complex event processing, machine learning, image recognition, and other
high value AI without writing it in-house. Azure services like Azure Functions, Azure Stream Analytics, and Azure
Machine
Learning can all be run on-premises via Azure IoT Edge.
Box 2: An Azure IoT Edge device
Azure IoT Edge moves cloud analytics and custom business logic to devices so that your organization can focus on
business insights instead of data management.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-edge/about-iot-edge

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
You are developing an application that uses an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster.
You are troubleshooting a node issue.
You need to connect to an AKS node by using SSH.
Solution: You add an SSH key to the node, and then you create an SSH connection.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
By default, SSH keys are generated when you create an AKS cluster. If you did not specify your own SSH keys when
you created your AKS cluster, add your public SSH keys to the AKS nodes. You also need to create an SSH connection
to the AKS node.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/ssh

QUESTION 7
You have thousands of images that contain text.
You need to process the text from the images to a machine-readable character stream.
Which Azure Cognitive Services service should you use?
A. the Image Moderation API
B. Text Analytics
C. Translator Text
D. Computer Vision
Correct Answer: D
With Computer Vision you can detect text in an image using optical character recognition (OCR) and extract the
recognized words into a machine-readable character stream.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Use Content Moderator\\’s machine-assisted image moderation and human-in-the-loop Review tool to moderate
images for adult and racy content. Scan images for text content and extract that text, and detect faces. You can match
images against custom lists, and take further action.
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/services/cognitive-services/computer-vision/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cognitive-services/content-moderator/image-moderation-api

QUESTION 8
Your company has a data team of Transact-SQL experts.
You plan to ingest data from multiple sources into Azure Event Hubs.
You need to recommend which technology the data team should use to move and query data from Event Hubs to Azure
Storage. The solution must leverage the data team\\’s existing skills.
What is the best recommendation to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
A. Azure Notification Hubs
B. Azure Event Grid
C. Apache Kafka streams
D. Azure Stream Analytics
Correct Answer: B
Event Hubs Capture is the easiest way to automatically deliver streamed data in Event Hubs to an Azure Blob storage
or Azure Data Lake store. You can subsequently process and deliver the data to any other storage destinations of your
choice, such as SQL Data Warehouse or Cosmos DB.
You to capture data from your event hub into a SQL data warehouse by using an Azure function triggered by an event
grid.
Example:pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q8First, you create an event hub with the Capture feature enabled and set an Azure blob storage as the destination. Data
generated by WindTurbineGenerator is streamed into the event hub and is automatically captured into Azure Storage
as
Avro files.
Next, you create an Azure Event Grid subscription with the Event Hubs namespace as its source and the Azure
Function endpoint as its destination. Whenever a new Avro file is delivered to the Azure Storage blob by the Event Hubs
Capture
feature, Event Grid notifies the Azure Function with the blob URI. The Function then migrates data from the blob to a
SQL data warehouse.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-hubs/store-captured-data-data-warehouse

QUESTION 9
Your company has factories in 10 countries. Each factory contains several thousand IoT devices.
The devices present status and trending data on a dashboard.
You need to ingest the data from the IoT devices into a data warehouse.
Which two Microsoft Azure technologies should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Stream Analytics
B. Azure Data Factory
C. an Azure HDInsight cluster
D. Azure Batch
E. Azure Data Lake
Correct Answer: CE
With Azure Data Lake Store (ADLS) serving as the hyper-scale storage layer and HDInsight serving as the Hadoop-
based compute engine services. It can be used for prepping large amounts of data for insertion into a Data Warehouse
References: https://www.blue-granite.com/blog/azure-data-lake-analytics-holds-a-unique-spot-in-the-modern-data-architecture

QUESTION 10
You are configuring data persistence for a Microsoft Bot Framework application. The application requires a structured
NoSQL cloud data store.
You need to identify a storage solution for the application. The solution must minimize costs.
What should you identify?
A. Azure Blob storage
B. Azure Cosmos DB
C. Azure HDInsight
D. Azure Table storage
Correct Answer: D
Table Storage is a NoSQL key-value store for rapid development using massive semi-structured datasets
You can develop applications on Cosmos DB using popular NoSQL APIs.
Both services have a different scenario and pricing model.
While Azure Storage Tables is aimed at high capacity on a single region (optional secondary read only region but no
failover), indexing by PK/RK and storage-optimized pricing; Azure Cosmos DB Tables aims for high throughput (single-
digit
millisecond latency), global distribution (multiple failover), SLA-backed predictive performance with automatic indexing
of each attribute/property and a pricing model focused on throughput.
References:
https://db-engines.com/en/system/Microsoft+Azure+Cosmos+DB%3BMicrosoft+Azure+Table+Storage

QUESTION 11
You are designing an AI solution that must meet the following processing requirements:
Use a parallel processing framework that supports the in-memory processing of high volumes of data.
Use in-memory caching and a columnar storage engine for Apache Hive queries.
What should you use to meet each requirement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q11Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q11-1Box 1: Apache Spark
Apache Spark is a parallel processing framework that supports in-memory processing to boost the performance of big-
data analytic applications. Apache Spark in Azure HDInsight is the Microsoft implementation of Apache Spark in the
cloud.
Box 2: Interactive Query
Interactive Query provides In-memory caching and improved columnar storage engine for Hive queries.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/spark/apache-spark-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/hdinsight/interactive-query/apache-interactive-query-get-started

QUESTION 12
You plan to design an application that will use data from Azure Data Lake and perform sentiment analysis by using
Azure Machine Learning algorithms.
The developers of the application use a mix of Windows- and Linux-based environments. The developers contribute to
shared GitHub repositories.
You need all the developers to use the same tool to develop the application.
What is the best tool to use? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
A. Microsoft Visual Studio Code
B. Azure Notebooks
C. Azure Machine Learning Studio
D. Microsoft Visual Studio
Correct Answer: C
References: https://github.com/MicrosoftDocs/azure-docs/blob/master/articles/machine-learning/studio/algorithm-choice.md

QUESTION 13
You are designing a solution that will ingest data from an Azure IoT Edge device, preprocess the data in Azure Machine
Learning, and then move the data to Azure HDInsight for further processing.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q13Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q13-1

Box 1: Export Data The Export data to Hive option in the Export Data module in Azure Machine Learning Studio. This
option is useful when you are working with very large datasets, and want to save your machine learning experiment data
to a Hadoop cluster or HDInsight distributed storage. Box 2: Apache Hive Apache Hive is a data warehouse system for
Apache Hadoop. Hive enables data summarization, querying, and analysis of data. Hive queries are written in HiveQL,
which is a query language similar to SQL. Box 3: Azure Data Lake Default storage for the HDFS file system of
HDInsight clusters can be associated with either an Azure Storage account or an Azure Data Lake Storage.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/export-to-hive-query
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hadoop/hdinsight-use-hive

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Microsoft Certified: Azure AI Engineer Associate

https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/azure-ai-engineer.aspx
Azure AI Engineers use Cognitive Services, Machine Learning, and Knowledge Mining to architect and implement Microsoft AI solutions involving natural language processing, speech, computer vision, bots, and agents.

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