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Which Cisco ESA security service is configured only through an outgoing mail policy? A. antivirus B. DLP C. Outbreak Filters D. AMP
What are the two primary components of content filters? (Choose two.)
A. conditions B. subject C. content D. actions E. policies
Which feature must be configured before an administrator can use the outbreak filter for nonviral threats? A. quarantine threat level B. antispam C. data loss prevention D. antivirus
What are the two phases of the Cisco ESA email pipeline? (Choose two.)
A. reject B. work queue C. action D. delivery E. quarantine
Which two query types are available when an LDAP profile is configured? (Choose two.)
A. proxy consolidation B. user C. recursive D. group E. routing
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the Cisco ESA reactions to a possible DLP from the left onto the correct action types on the right. Select and Place:
Which action on the Cisco ESA provides direct access to view the safelist/blocklist?
A. Show the SLBL cache on the CLI. B. Monitor Incoming/Outgoing Listener. C. Export the SLBL to a .csv file. D. Debug the mail flow policy.
What are two prerequisites for implementing undesirable URL protection in Cisco ESA? (Choose two.)
A. Enable outbreak filters. B. Enable email relay. C. Enable antispam scanning. D. Enable port bouncing. E. Enable antivirus scanning.
Which process is skipped when an email is received from safedomain.com, which is on the safe list?
A. message filter B. antivirus scanning C. outbreak filter D. antispam scanning
When DKIM signing is configured, which DNS record must be updated to load the DKIM public signing key?
A. AAAA record B. PTR record C. TXT record D. MX record
What must be configured to allow the Cisco ESA to encrypt an email using the Cisco Registered Envelope Service?
A. provisioned email encryption profile B. message encryption from a content filter that select “Message Encryption” over TLS C. message encryption from the mail flow policies with “CRES” selected D. content filter to forward the email to the Cisco Registered Envelope server
Which benefit does enabling external spam quarantine on Cisco SMA provide?
A. ability to back up spam quarantine from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console B. access to the spam quarantine interface on which a user can release, duplicate, or delete C. ability to scan messages by using two engines to increase a catch rate D. ability to consolidate spam quarantine data from multiple Cisco ESA to one central console
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the steps to configure Cisco ESA to use SPF/SIDF verification from the left into the correct order on the right. Select and Place:
Which two statements about configuring message filters within the Cisco ESA are true? (Choose two.)
A. The filters command executed from the CLI is used to configure the message filters. B. Message filters configuration within the web user interface is located within Incoming Content Filters. C. The filter config command executed from the CLI is used to configure message filters. D. Message filters can be configured only from the CLI. E. Message filters can be configured only from the web user interface.
What is the benefit of implementing URL filtering on the Cisco ESA?
A. removes threats from malicious URLs B. blacklists spam C. provides URL reputation protection D. enhances reputation against malicious URLs
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QUESTION 1 Which two business impacts do Cisco collaborative technologies bring to employee innovation? (Choose two.) A. eliminating complexity and controlling costs B. increasing time to market C. enabling disparate teams to work together to solve problems D. eliminating sales cycle time E. enhancing communications with strategic partners and suppliers Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 2 What value does Cisco Business Edition 6000 bring to midmarket businesses? A. enhanced collaboration functionalities by adding only few additional servers B. affordable, advanced collaboration functionalities on a single server C. colocation with the existing telephony system D. adds video collaboration capabilities on top of the existing telephony system Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which three options are the most important business challenges experienced by midmarket customers\\’? (Choose three) A. lack of in-house IT skills B. available bandwidth for video C. being local but competing globally D. regulation and government policies E. need for innovation Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4 Which two statements about Cisco Validated Designs and Smart Business Architectures are true? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Validated Designs provide proven design of solutions that include only Cisco products and thus ensure singlevendor solutions. B. Cisco Validated Designs are end-to-end designs that are well-tested and fully documented. C. Smart Business Architecture guides are available for enterprise-sized deployments only. D. Smart Business Architecture is a blueprint for delivering the three Cisco architectures in a modular approach. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5 Which statement allows you to position the topic of collaboration meeting rooms with the customer? A. Cisco Collaboration Meeting Rooms is a validated design that defines the layout design, and technical requirements of Cisco Telepresence Video rooms. B. Cisco Collaboration Meeting Rooms is a video conferencing service. It couples WebEx Personal Rooms and the cloud-based WebEx Video Bridge into one, always-available meeting experience. C. Cisco Collaboration Meeting Rooms represent the video capabilities of Cisco Business Edition 6000 that enable video from any device. D. Cisco Collaboration Meeting Rooms is an on-premises service offering video to the enterprise across mobile, desktop, and room-based systems. Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 Which hybrid and public cloud solution services help customers design, plan, accelerate, and de-risk multi-cloud migration A. Cloud Protect B. Cloud Advisory C. Cloud Consume D. Cloud Connect Correct Answer: B Cloud Advisory Services Design, plan, accelerate, and de-risk your multicloud adoption (delivered by Cisco Advisory Services or Cisco Partners).
QUESTION 2 How long is the average time to detection” of a security threat for Cisco\\’s customers? A. 100 days B. 3 days C. 28 days D. 17 hours Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which services make up the Cisco Unified Wireless Network\\’s Mobility Services Framework? A. Guest Access, Security, Data, and Voice B. Guest Access, Security, Location, and Voice C. Guest Access, Data, Location, and Voice D. Guest Access, Security, Data, and Location Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Cisco UC platform consists of which 3 featured products? A. Business Edition 6000, Unified Manager, HD Video B. Cisco Webex Teams, Business Edition 6000, HD Video C. Cisco Webex Teams, Unified Communications Manager D. Cisco Webex Teams, Business Edition 6000, Unified Communications Manager Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 What does Cisco call the intelligent, closed-loop, and self-optimizing system built on Cisco DNA? A. The Assured Network B. The Automated Network C. The Encryption Initiative D. The Network Intuitive Correct Answer: B
latest Cisco 700-551 exam practice questions 1-5
QUESTION 1 Which incentive program lets you showcase Cisco technologies cost-effectively? A. Solution Incentive Program B. Technology Migration Program C. Express Security Program D. Teaming Incentive Program E. Not for Resale Program Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 What three types of solutions are provided in the Cisco security portfolio? (Choose three) A. Cloud Security B. Policy and Access C. E-mail Analytics D. Advanced Threat E. SaaS and Cloud Platform F. Firewall Security Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 3 What are three main customer software buying models? (Choose three) A. Security ELA Program B. Security Software Volume Purchasing Program C. Cisco360 D. Not for Resale Program E. CiscoONE F. TechnologyMigration Program Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 4 After achieving the Cisco Security Express Specialization what is the next level of security specialization a partner may attain? A. Advanced Security Architecture Specialization B. Master Threat Response Specialization C. Advanced Threat Analytic Specialization D. Express Security Architecture Specialization Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 What is an example of an integration services? A. Security Stealthwatch deployment B. Incident Response C. ASA with firepower deployment D. Cloud threat mitigation E. Stealththreat analytics Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 Which two products are considered a part of the Cisco Meraki full stack? (Choose two.) A. UCS servers B. MX security appliances C. MR wireless access points D. Aironet wireless access points E. Catalyst switches Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2 Which device belongs to Business Class Cisco On-Premise Switching Solutions? A. Cisco Meraki MS 225 B. Cisco Meraki MS 250/350 C. Cisco Catalyst 2960-L D. Cisco 350X/550X Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which is a K-12 feature supported in Mobility Express? A. mDNS Gateway B. Guest WLAN enhancements C. Expert View in the WebUI D. Schedule WLAN E. CMX Cloud support Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4 Which are the two advantages of having Direct Internet Access? (Choose two.) A. Limits guest Wi-Fi at the branch B. Secure WAN transport C. Protects remote employees D. Threat mitigation techniques E. Leverage local internet path Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 Which device is a cloud managed switch? A. Cisco Meraki MS 250/350 B. Cisco Catalyst 2960-L C. Cisco 220/250 D. Cisco 350X/550X Correct Answer: A
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Welcome to Pass4itsure Blog: Free Cisco 200-355 Dumps(16-48)
After you configure the Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller v7.6, a customer requests an SSID that allows for client web authentication with email input. Which authentication method should be used?
C. splash page web redirect
D. conditional web redirect
E. on MAC filter failure
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A
What three characteristics are components of mobility anchoring? (Choose three.)
A. enabled as a global setting
B. enabled on a per WLAN basis
C. restricts clients to a specific subnet
D. client traffic is tunneled to predefined WLC(s)
E. only one mobility anchor is allowed per WLAN
F. acts as master controller for a mobility group
Correct Answer: BCD
A client is attached to the Cisco Unified Wireless Network using controllers. When the client is using WPA2 and EAP authentication, where are the wireless encryption keys located during the active user session? (Choose two.)
A. On the access point
B. On the RADIUS server
C. On the Cisco WCS
D. On the client
E. On the Cisco WLC 200-355 dumps Correct Answer: AD
Which two formats are available for Cisco WCS reports? (Choose two.)
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: AB
An enterprise needs their iPhones to connect to the EAP-TLS network. How should the devices be configured?
A. push profile and certificate through Configuration Utility
B. configure directly through Settings application
C. email certificate to device then configure through Settings application
D. download certificate from web page then configure through Settings application
E. push profile and certificate through iTunes
Correct Answer: A
Which option describes computer-to-computer wireless communication?
A. BSS and BSA
B. IBSS and ad hoc network
C. ad hoc network and BSA
D. IBSS and ESS
E. ESS and BSA
F. BSS and ad hoc network
200-355 vce Correct Answer: B
A wireless engineer is designing the wireless networking for a company with offices in two different locations. Which two regulatory bodies should they check to find the maximum EIRP allowed? (Choose two.)
E. Wi-Fi Alliance
Correct Answer: BD
A customer has asked for its wireless equipment to be managed as securely as possible. Which three management protocols will provide encrypted access to the equipment? (Choose three.)
A. Secure Shell
200-355 exam Correct Answer: ABC
The wireless network is using controller-based APs and version 7.0 MR1. The APs appear to be connected properly to the controllers. A wireless user near one of the APs reports that they are unable to connect to the network with their pre shared key. Which option shows the GUI path where you can check the connection status of that client?
A. WLANs andgt; WLAN_ID andgt; Advanced
B. Security andgt; Clients
C. Security andgt; Advanced andgt; Clients
D. Monitor andgt; Clients
E. Wireless andgt; 802.11b/g/n andgt; clients
Correct Answer: D
What authentication method requires a certificate on both the client and authentication server?
F. EAP-TTLS 200-355 dumps Correct Answer: B
What is the function of the Cisco AnyConnect DART tool?
A. creates a compressed bundle of client logs and information
B. visualizes a WLAN environment, showing the possible locations of problems
C. gathers statistics from neighboring clients for comparison to the baseline
D. helps to troubleshoot a WLAN connection by using easy-to-use wizards and statistic viewers
Correct Answer: A
A customer has completed the installation of an 802.11ac greenfield deployment at their corporate headquarters. They would like to leverage 802.11ac enhanced speeds on the trusted employee WLAN. In order to configure the employee WLAN, what Layer 2 security policies are valid?
A. WPA2 (TKIP)
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: C
A customer is concerned about ease of wireless management. Which deployment model requires the highest administrative overhead to deploy and manage?
B. local mode
Correct Answer: A
Which three items do you need to establish a wireless connection to an enterprise wireless network? (Choose three.)
A. SSID name
B. RF channel
C. RF signal
D. 802.1X/EAP credentials
E. pre-shared key
F. web page
G. WPA/WPA2 settings
200-355 vce Correct Answer: ACD
Refer to the exhibit.
What does the yellow shield with the exclamation mark indicate?
A. The network uses open authentication and no encryption.
B. The network uses an unsupported channel.
C. The signal is too distorted to connect.
D. The AP that is transmitting this SSID uses the wrong RF domain.
E. This is the ad-hoc network.
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A
An AP has been configured for personal wireless access to the Internet. Which item should be configured on the wireless client?
A. RF channel
E. broadcast SSID
Correct Answer: C
A company wants to implement wireless in all 20 remote office locations and wants centralized management of these remote sites. What application would meet the requirements?
A. Control And Provisioning of Wireless Access Points
B. Cisco point- to multi-point wireless bridging
C. Cisco autonomous access points in FlexConnect mode
D. Split MAC architecture utilizing LWAPP and WLC 200-355 dumps Correct Answer: D
Which governing body analyzes the applications and environments in which wireless networks are used?
E. WiFi Alliance
Correct Answer: D
Which two statements about WiMAX technology are true? (Choose two.)
A. WiMAX is defined by 802.11i.
B. Typically, fixed WiMAX networks have a higher-gain directional antenna installed near the client.
C. WiMAX is capable of working as a long-range system over several miles.
D. WiMAX works only for licensed frequencies.
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: BC
An engineer recently removed a WLC from a WCS, but the APs associated to the WLC are still showing on the WCS. What is a reason for this?
A. The associated APs must be removed manually.
B. The APs must be removed from the WCS map.
C. The hold-down timer must expire before the APs will be removed.
D. The APs must be audited.
Correct Answer: A
When Cisco AnyConnect modules are installed on a PC, which module must be installed first?
B. web security
200-355 vce Correct Answer: C
Which two factors must be considered when evaluating an RF interferer for severity? (Choose two.)
A. distance from the AP
C. the type of security crack being used
D. duty cycle
E. number of interfering IP stations in the cell
F. duplicate SSID
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 41 Adam works as a Database Administrator for a company. He creates a table named Students. He wants to create a new table named Class with the help of the Students table. Which of the following syntaxes will Adam use to accomplish the task?
A. CREATE TABLE Class INSERT INTO SELECT * FROM Students;
B. CREATE TABLE Class FROM SELECT * FROM Students;
C. CREATE TABLE Class (SELECT * FROM Students);
D. CREATE TABLE Class AS SELECT * FROM Students;
200-355 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 42 You work as a Database Administrator for a company. The company uses MySQL as its database. You have created two tables named Employees and Departments in the database. Now, you want to display data from both tables. Which of the following actions will you perform to accomplish the task?
B. Table Merge operator
D. GROUP BY
QUESTION 43 Which of the following terms is described in the statement below? “It is procedural code that is automatically executed in response to certain events on a particular table or view in a database.”
A. Data type
C. Datetime data type
D. Database trigger 200-355 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 44 You work as a Database Administrator for a company. The company uses MySQL as its database development platform. You have created a table named Employees in the database. You want to display the names of the employees whose salary is more than $5000, but you do not want to display any duplicate content. Therefore, you have written the following query:
SELECT emp_id, DISTINCT emp_name WHERE salary > 5000 FROM Employees; Which of the following statements is true about the above query?
A. The statement will display only unique names whose salary is more than $5000.
B. The UNIQUE clause should be used in place of the DISTINCT clause.
C. The statement will give an error.
D. The statement will display those records whose salary is more than $5000.
QUESTION 45 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. The data type defines a date that is combined with a time of day along with fractional seconds that is based on a 24-hour clock.
200-355 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 46 You work as a Database Administrator for a company. The company uses MySQL as the database platform. You have created a table named Students in the database. The structure of the table is as follows:
Stu_IDNUMBER (3) PRIMARY KEY
Stu_NameVARCHAR2 (25) NOT NULL
Fee NUMBER (8, 2)
Class NUMBER (5);
You have executed the following statement for the table “Students”:
SELECT e.Stu_Name, m.Fee
FROM Students e, Students m
WHERE e.Stu_ID = m.stu_ID;
Which of the following join types have you used in the above statement?
A. Cross join
B. Equijoin C.
Self join D.
QUESTION 47 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
A specifies that the value of a column (or columns), upon which the index is based, must be unique.
A. unique index
200-355 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 48 You work as a Database Administrator for a company. The company uses MySQL as its database. You have created a new table named Employees, which keeps all the information of the employees. You want to add a new row to the Employees table. Which of the following statements will you use to accomplish the task?
A. INSERT (column1,column2, …columnN) INTO VALUES(value1, value2, …valueN);
B. INSERT INTO (column1, column2, …columnN) VALUES(value1 ,value2,…va lueN);
C. INSERT (column1, column2, …columnN), VALUES(value1, value2, …valueN);
D. INSERT INTO (column1, column2,… columnN), VALUES(value1, value2,…v alueN);
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Welcome to Pass4itsure Blog: Free Cisco 300-115 Dumps(57-90)
QUESTION 57 When a Layer 2 trunking EtherChannel is configured, which two attributes must match across the member ports? (Choose two)
A. Interface Description.
B. Spanning-tree cost.
C. spanning-tree priority
D. allowed VLANS
E. trunking mode.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 58 Based on the show spanning-tree vlan 200 output shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the STP process for VLAN 200 are true? (Choose two.)
A. BPDUs will be sent out every two seconds.
B. The time spent in the listening state will be 30 seconds.
C. The time spent in the learning state will be 15 seconds.
D. The maximum length of time that the BPDU information will be saved is 30 seconds.
E. This switch is the root bridgefor VLAN 200.
F. BPDUs will be sent out every 10 seconds.
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 59 Which statement describes what happens if all VSL connections between the virtual switch members are lost?
A. Both virtualswitch members cease to forward traffic.
B. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and both virtual switch members continue to forward traffic independently.
C. The virtual switch members reload.
D. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and only the new active virtual switch continues to forward
traffic. 300-115 dumpsCorrect Answer: D
QUESTION 60 Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the accessswitch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 61 Which two statements about the HSRP priority are true? (Choose two)
A. To assign the HSRP router priority in a standby group, the standby group-number priority priority-value global configuration command must be used.
B. The default priority of a router is zero (0).
C. The no standby priority command assigns a priority of 100 to the router.
D. Assuming that preempting has also been configured, the router with the lowest priority in an HSRP group would become the active router.
E. When two routers in an HSRP standby group are configured with identical priorities, the router with the highest configured IP address will become the active router. 300-115 pdf Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 62 After implementation of a drop out recovery program, employment rate rose. The drop out recovery program is responsible for increases in employment and look for possible economic or other factors that might have contributed to the rise. This example may be referred towards:
A. Post Hoc, Ergo Propter Hoc
B. Ad Hominem
C. Non Sequiter
D. False use of authority Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63 For Example one exception in 1000 cases is probably not the reason enough to recommend overhauling the entire system, although the final answer must be derived from the context and the condition of the related control system. Which one of the following statements is clearly supported by this example?
A. Auditors should base findings and recommendations on significant information
B. Auditors should be aware of that the concept of materiality and significance take on different meanings in the public and private sectors C. Both of these
D. None of these 300-115 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64 A manager of a very controversial program may have stolen only $200, but the controversy and public accountability aspects may make the 200 significant, where it would not be material private sector financial statement opinion audit. It means:
A. Auditors should be aware that the concepts of materiality and significance take on different meanings in the public and private sector
B. During the planning and reporting processes, government auditors may need to consider qualitative factors such as the visibility of the program under audit, or the newness of the program or changes in its condition
C. Both of these
D. None of these Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 65 Audit evidence:
A. Is sufficient when it is factual and would convince an informed person to reach the sameconclusion
B. Is competent if it consistently produces the same outcomes
C. Is relevant when it is directly related to audit comments, recommendations and conclusions
D. All of these 300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66 Data gathering and evaluation during field work includes:
A. Gaining and understanding of the activity, system, or process under review
B. Observing conditions and operations
C. Interviewing people and examining assets and accounting, and other operational business, and other operational records.
D. All of these Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 67 Compliance testing is designed primarily to:
A. Hold detection risk to an acceptable level
B. Determine whether policies and procedures have been followed
C. Determine that account balances exit, are accurate, and are properly classified
D. Provide evidence about monetary misstatements 300-115 dumpsCorrect Answer: B
QUESTION 68 Which one of the following is NOT an indicator of control weakness in derivatives?
A. Application of inappropriate valuation models
B. Management not involved
C. Evidence of a “Star Manager” syndrome
D. Absence of fiduciary mentality Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69 Major categories of loans include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Commercial loans
B. Residential loans
C. Consumer loans
D. Agricultural loans 300-115 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 70 __________ allows businesses that sell durable goods such as auto-mobiles to finance inventories. As the business sells goods, the loan advance against those goods is repaid.
A. Term loans
B. Consumer loans
C. Installment loans
D. Floor-plan financing Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71 Common type/s of installment loans is/are:
A. Credit card loans
B. Residential loans
C. Mortgage loans
D. All of these 300-115 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 72 Types of commercial loans are /are:
A. Installment loans
B. Floor plan financing
C. Asset-based financing
D. Both B and C Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73 Management of the lending institution sets a reserve for loan losses at a given point based on such factors as mentioned below EXCEPT:
A. Number and type of loans made
B. Quality of loans made
C. Historical loss experience
D. Loan portfolio
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74 If more funds than expected are needed to cover loans losses in a given period, the reserve must be increased and the difference is charged to: A. Administration expenses
B. Prepaid assets
C. Operating expenses
D. Loan expenses Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75 When a loan becomes delinquent or when collection seems unlikely, banks often suspend:
A. Accrual of interest
B. Deferral of interest
C. Loan losses
D. Loan prepayments 300-115 dumpsCorrect Answer: A
QUESTION 76 If principal is paid on a loan after it has been placed on non-accrual status, the bank must determine whether it should record the payment as a reduction of:
A. The loan principal amount
B. Income interest
C. Both of these
D. Any one of these Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77 Financial institutions regularly identify uncollectible accounts and charge them off against the reserve of:
A. Unearned loan revenue
B. Loan losses
C. Loan expenses
D. All of these 300-115 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78 Watch lists of loans that are in danger of becoming delinquent generally contain information on such as:
A. Customers name and account information
B. Loan balance outstanding
C. Available collateral and its estimated value
D. All of these Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 79 Deposit accounts are:
A. Interest bearing accounts
B. Non-interest bearing accounts
C. Tax bearing accounts
D. Either A or B 300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80 Some small businesses keep funds in a savings account to gain interest on:
A. Fixed assets
B. Liquid assets
D. All of these Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81 Which one of the following generally pays higher rates of interest than saving accounts?
A. Money market deposit accounts
B. Certificates of deposit
C. Term loans
D. Asset-based financing
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 82 Interest rates offered on new CDs changes:
A. Daily at most banks
B. Twice a day at most banks
C. Weekly at most banks
D. Monthly at most banks Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83 Certificates of deposit may be:
A. Bearable or registered
B. Negotiable or non-negotiable
C. None of these
D. Both of these 300-115 dumpsCorrect Answer: D
QUESTION 84 Many businesses generally find CDs to be a:
A. Satisfactory money management approach
B. More than satisfactory money management approach
C. Less than satisfactory money management approach
D. Dissatisfactory money management approach Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85 Non-interest bearing accounts including checking accounts and escrow accounts are known as:
A. Term deposit accounts
B. Demand deposit accounts C. Fixed deposit accounts
D. Both A and C 300-115 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 86 Demand deposit account allows customers to transfer money through the use of:
B. ATMs and EFTs
C. Point of sale (POS) terminals
D. All of these Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 87 During the posting process of ledger records on deposit account banks may reject some transactions because:
A. They lack proper endorsements
B. They are subject to stop payments
C. They would create an over draft
D. All of these 300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88 Which one of the following audit objectives and steps should not be considered when performing an audit of deposit account?
A. Determine whether dormant accounts are closed in a timely manner and in accordance with policies
B. Determine whether there are adequate controls to prevent unauthorized access and change to customer accounts
C. Determine whether applicable fees and penalties are properly assessed and posted
D. None of these Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 89 Trust departments provide services to publicly held companies related to issuing and maintaining:
A. Stock transactions
B. Stock balances
C. Stock threshold
D. None off these 300-115 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 90 Funds held in trust cannot be reinvented in:
A. Term deposits
B. Savings accounts
C. Financial institution’s own securities
D. Floor-plan financing Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 Which settings are preserved when installing VirusScan on a computer that had a previous version installed? (Choose three)
A. Help files
B. Scanning Engine
C. Detection definition file
D. Log file names and locations
E. Registry Keys containing product versions
300-560 exam Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 2 After a query has been completed, additional actions can be taken on the:
A. Lower right hand comer of page
B. Lower left hand corner of page
C. Upper right hand corner of page
D. Upper left hand corner of page Correct Answer: B QUESTION NO: 3 Motorola Solutions Mobile Computers that have both the Stone Street Bluetooth stack as well as the Microsoft Bluetooth stack installed can be defaulted to select one over the other. How do you control which one is enabled? A. Edit the registry. B. Change the shortcut in the start up. C. Select the program from the installed applications. D. You cannot enable one over the other. You must select the Bluetooth stack after every cold boot. 300-560 dumpsAnswer: A
QUESTION NO: 4 Which of the following frequencies is used by the Bluetooth protocol for short range communications? A. 870 MHz B. 912 MHz C. 2.4 GHz D. 5.1 GHz Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 5 When Proxy ARP is enabled on the WLAN infrastructure, ARP messages originating from the wired network are: A. Never sent to the mobile devices, B. Always sent to the mobile device. C. Sent upon initial power-up of the mobile device. D. Sent when the mobile device sends request to the wireless switch. 300-560 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6 Which of the following WLAN frequency bands is supported on Motorola Mobile Computers (select TWO)? A. 2.4 GHz B. 3.6 GHz C. 5 GHz D. 9 GHz Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 7 Your customer’s mobile computers are experiencing poor performance due to Broadcast and Multicast traffic coming from the wired LAN. Which of the following will reduce the amount of Broadcast and Multicast traffic on the Wireless LAN? A. Implement a VLAN that only supports the wireless traffic. B. Implement 802.ip prioritization on the wired network. C. Change the antenna types to directional if they are Omni. D. Decrease the transmit power on the Access Points. 300-560 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8 Which of the following 802.11 wireless supplicants are available and supported on Motorola Solutions Mobile Computers (select TWO)? A. Aegis B. Fusion C. Odyssey D. Windows Zero Configuration Answer: B,D QUESTION NO: 9 Which of the following WAN technologies uses a Subscriber Identification Module (select TWO)? A. CDMA B. GPRS C. EvDO D. HSDPA
300-560 exam Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 10 Motorola’s Interactive Sensor Technology (1ST) is unique technology which leverages an integrated 3-axis Micro electromechanical System (MEMS) to improve the user experience by enabling a significant number of different features. Which of the following features is NOT considered one of the features enabled by Motorola’s 1ST technology? A. Dynamic screen orientation B. Global Positioning C. Keep Alive on Motion D. Power Save on Face Down E. Wake Up on Motion Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11 Mobility Platform Architecture (MPA) is a unique Motorola Platform ideology that is used within many of the mobile computers within Motorola Solutions Mobile Device Portfolio. Which of the following are considered typical technical design requirements within the Mobility Platform Architecture (select TWO)? A. WLAN 802.11 MIMO Integration B. Application portability across multiple form factors through common OS and APIs C. Integrated, portable Platform security support across multiple processors D. Consistent interfaces that support rapid deployment and scalable support 300-560 dumpsAnswer: B,D QUESTION NO: 12 Synchronization refers to the management of information between mobile computers and a host computer. Which of the following synchronization applications is used when the host computer is running Windows Vista or Windows 7? A. ActiveSync B. Windows Mobile Device Center (WMDC) C. Sync D. MobileMe E. Syncdroid Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 13 Which of the following Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) clients would not use Registry to save/read client settings? A. CE5.0 B. CE6.0R3 C. WM6.1 D. WM6.5 300-560 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14 The Bootloader application can be used to perform which of the following activities? A. Reset the mobile computer B. Install mobile computer firmware C. Change user configuration information D. Perform synchronization between the mobile computer and a host computer Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15 When in landscape mode, what is the x, y pixel resolution of a QVGA display? A. 320×240 B. 320 x 320 C. 240×320 D. 640×480 300-560 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 16 RegMerge.dll is an application that is used to make registry edits to the Windows CE registry. On Windows CE mobile devices RegMerge is run by default after which of the following events? A. Clean boot B. Cold boot C. Warm boot Answer: B QUESTION 17 Which settings are preserved when installing VirusScan on a computer that had a previous version installed? (Choose three)
A. Help files
B. Scanning Engine
C. Detection definition file
D. Log file names and locations
E. Registry Keys containing product versions
300-560 exam Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 18 After a query has been completed, additional actions can be taken on the:
A. Lower right hand comer of page
B. Lower left hand corner of page
C. Upper right hand corner of page
D. Upper left hand corner of page Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19 When creating a Run Query Server Task, which sub-actions can be selected to allow the system to automatically act upon the results of a query? (Choose three)
A. Apply tag
B. Delete sensor
C. Create group
D. Export to file
E. Send snmp trap 300-560 dumpsCorrect Answer: ABD QUESTION 20 Deployment packages that are checked into the ePO server have which of the following file extension?
D. .jar Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21 What function is disabled for the default “ePO Summary” dashboard?
C. Make active
D. Make public 300-560 pdf Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22 When a policy is locked, it prevents modification of the; A. Policy
C. System tree
D. Sub groups Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23 Private queries are available to:
A. The creator
B. Global Administrators
C. Administrators who have permission
D. Group Administrators 300-560 vce Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24 When configuring the Active Directory settings, exceptions can include which of the following?
A. Organizational Units
C. Domain Groups
D. Users Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25 Which of the following are used to update the master repository on a regular basis?
A. Automatic Response
B. Client Task
C. Server Task
D. Server Settings 300-560 exam Correct Answer: C QUESTION 26 What is the only Dashboard that is active by default?
A. RSD Summary
B. Executive Dashboard
C. HIP Dashboard
D. ePO Summary Correct Answer: D QUESTION 27 Which options must be selected when creating a maintenance plan for the SQL Database? (Choose three)
A. Shrink Database
B. Check Database Integrity
C. Rebuild Index
D. Clean Up History
E. Back Up Database 300-560 dumpsCorrect Answer: BCE QUESTION 28 What Artemis sensitivity level is selected to protect systems or areas that are regularly infected?
D. Very High Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29 When a group has four sorting criterions assigned, the system will be placed into the group when it meets how many of the conditions?
D. Four 300-560 pdf Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30 What location is used to change the default Dashboard for new ePO Console users?
A. Personal Settings
B. Permission Sets
D. Server Settings Correct Answer: D QUESTION 31 Which of the following is a default permission set?
A. Executive Previewer
B. Site Administrator
C. Site Reviewer
D. Group Reviewer 300-560 vce Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32 Which VirusScan policy configures the option “Allow this system to make remote console connections to other systems’?
A. User interface
B. On-Access Scanner
C. Quarantine Manager
D. Unwanted Programs Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33 Which of the following options are available from the ePO Server settings? (Choose three)
A. Ports B. Global Updating
C. Event Migration
D. Active Directory Synchronization
E. Email Server 300-560 exam Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 34 Which of the following are examples of client tasks? (Choose three)
A. Agent Wakeup
B. Product Update
C. Repository pull
D. Mirror Repositories
E. Event Migration Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 35 An administrator can configure a query to run a scheduled sub-action to do which of the following? (Choose two)
A. Resort Systems
B. Create Tag
C. Move Systems to another Group
D. Clear Policy
E. Add to Rogue Systems 300-560 dumpsCorrect Answer: AC QUESTION 36 What Artemis sensitivity level is selected when the regular risk of exposure to malware is greater than the risk of a false positive?
D. Very High Correct Answer: B QUESTION 37 Which of the following system properties does the ePO server write to the database? (Choose three)
A. Total disk space
B. Total physical memory
C. Last communication
D. VirusScan version
E. McAfee agent version 300-560 pdf Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 38 What is used to configure the SQL server to drop the transaction logs once a checkpoint is complete?
B. Simple C. Bulk-Logged
D. Recovery Correct Answer: B QUESTION 39 Which of the following methods can be used to add systems to groups within the system tree? (Choose three)
A. Login scripts
B. Importing AD containers
C. A text file
D. Importing AD systems
E. Rogue system detections 300-560 vce Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 40 A Subnet that has a Rogue System Detection Sensor installed is:
D. Covered Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41 Which of the following is a supported browser for ePO? (Choose two)
A. Internet Explorer
E. Opera 300-560 exam Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 42 Which of the following are valid server tasks for updating the ePO repositories? (Choose two)
A. Repository pull
C. Repository replication
E. Product deployment Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 43 Where in the ePO database is the ePO Agent gathered system information stored?
D. epoproductproperties 300-560 dumps Correct Answer: A QUESTION 44 When creating a permission set, which of the following users are automatically assigned? (Choose two)
B. Group Admin
D. Global Administrator
E. Global Reviewer Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 45 Which of the following are valid Automatic Query Actions that can be selected from a result of a query? (Choose three)
A. Install Point Products
B. Assign Policy
C. Move Systems to another Group
D. Email File
E. Remove Point Products 300-560 pdf Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 46 When an on-demand scan starts, the feature takes CPU and 10 samples over the first:
A. 20 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 40 seconds
D. 50 seconds Correct Answer: B QUESTION 47 McAfee ePO server listens on Port 8443 for connection to the administrative console. The Apache service port listens is on which of the following default ports?
A. 80, 8081
B. 8081, 8443
C. 80, 443
D. 8444, 1433 300-560 vce Correct Answer: C QUESTION 48 In which area of the console is the System Tree Sorting enabled?
A. Server Settings
B. Client tasks
C. Sorting Criteria
D. Assigned Policies Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49 Product deployment packages are checked into what repository?
D. Source 300-560 exam Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50 When opening an existing policy, the policy settings are organized across:
D. Columns Correct Answer: B QUESTION 51 Which two items are modified in the “Full Scan Task” when installing the Anti-Spyware module? (Choose two)
C. Running Process
D. Recycle bin
E. Memory for Rootkits 300-560 dumpsCorrect Answer: AB QUESTION 52 Within the Server Services, which component manages events, Group management, Tag management, and Agent sorting?
A. Event Parser
B. Framework service
D. Apache Correct Answer: D QUESTION 53 Which of the following steps are needed for Policy Sharing? (Choose three)
A. Register the remote ePO servers
B. Share the individual policies
C. Configure Server Task
D. Enable Global Updating
E. Share default policies 300-560 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
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Question No : 14 In which situation can the Data Transform rule not be used? (Choose One) A. To set some properties as the work item advances over a flow connector B. To copy data from a connector C. To set initial property values on a SOAP service primary page D. Interacting with PRPC database
700-070 exam Answer: D
Question No : 15 Your application has leveraged the parent-child mid-process dependency relationship for some of the case types. Which of the following situations should you be concerned with and have your design appropriately avoid? (Choose One) A. A double instantiation of the child cases B. A broken process C. A deadlock condition D. A critical performance issue Answer: C Question No : 16 Which statement is the least accurate regarding draft flow rules? (Choose One) A. Rule Resolution ignores them B. This is a good practice as it allows you to test the flow while it is still being built C. This is a good practice to indicate that your flow is available only for unit testing D. They should not be moved to production environment 700-070 dumpsAnswer: A Question No : 17 When is it appropriate to use a spin-off? (Choose One) A. When you wish to route work to a different department while continuing down the current process path B. When you wish to run calculations in a separate thread from the current process C. When you wish to call a connector rule asynchronously D. When you wish to call multiple connector rules simultaneously Answer: A Question No : 18 Which two of the following statements are most accurate about the Split-For-Each and Split-Join shapes? (Choose Two) A. Both shapes allow you to continue processing when ANY or ALL of the sub processes complete B. Split-Join allows you to execute different sub-flows whereas Split-For-Each calls the same process on different pages C. Split-For-Each allows you to execute different sub-flows whereas Split-Join calls the same process on different pages D. Both shapes create separate Threads for sub-processes they create E. Split-For-Each can only be used when iterating over a list of work objects
700-070 pdf Answer: A,B Question No : 19 Which of the following statements about work parties is the least accurate? (Choose One) A. Data Propagation is the only mechanism to add a work party to a child case B. Correspondence is primarily sent to work parties C. The “AddParty” flow action rule allows end users to add a word party to a work item at runtime D. Multiple work parties on a specific work item may have the same work party role Answer: A Question No : 20 Which statement about the BLOB columns is the least accurate? (Choose One)
A. BLOB columns can be encrypted to increase security
B. All tables in PegaRULES database should have a BLOB-type column
C. BLOB columns allow easy storage of complex data structures
D. Content in BLOB columns is extracted from structured columns in the same table
700-070 vce Answer: B Question No : 21 Using the flow shown below, which flow shapes would allow a reference to a Data Transform rule? (Choose One)
A. The “Create” assignment
B. The “Submit” connector
C. The “Process Engine” uitlity
D. The End shape
Answer: B Question No : 22 An architect would like to create a report that has data from a work class and the operator who created the work. All of the following are viable mechanisms to do this, except: (Choose One)
A. Configure entries in the “Class Join” part of the report definition
B. Use an association rule between the classes
C. Configure entries in the “Subreports” part of the report definition
D. Configure entries in the “Declarative Index Join” part of the report definition
700-070 exam Answer: D
Question No : 23 Which of the following property types would most appropriately represent a list of ordered line items in a purchase order? (Choose One)
A. Page List
B. Page Group
C. Java Object
D. Value List
E. Value Group
Question No : 24 When using a declarative page to store a list of currency rates used by an entire application, what is the most appropriate scope? (Choose One)
D. Application 700-070 dumps Answer: A
Question No : 25 Which of the following sub classes of MyCo-Data-Person is least appropriate? (Choose One)
Question No : 26 What type of property is “Drivers” in the following syntax: .Policy.Drivers(OWNER).Name? (Choose One)
B. Page List
C. Page Group
D. Single Value
700-070 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 27 A linked property ___________? (Choose One)
A. is a form of a pointer to an object stored in the PRPC database
B. connects two properties on the clipboard
C. provides a way to update PRPC data objects from a work object
D. is used to dynamically build table joins when reporting
Question No : 28 Which of the following is the best use of a data table? (Choose One)
A. Managing the mapping between account levels and discount rates (approx 10 account levels)
B. Managing the list of rules that should run when pricing a loan (approx 30 rules)
C. Managing a list of valid vendors and their addresses (approx 30 vendors)
D. Managing the effective dates of different discounts (approx 20 discounts each with up to 3 effective dates)
700-070 vce Answer: C
Question No : 29 Connector simu-lations cannot be used in which of the following scenarios? (Choose One)
A. When the data source is temporarily unavailable
B. When the interface has not been defined
C. When testing an application
D. When the service has not been developed
Question No : 30 Which of the following is the most appropriate use of Connect SQL rules? (Choose Two)
A. Execute a stored procedure against an external database
B. Execute custom SQL statements to improve performance of queries and updates to the PegaRULES database
C. Update an external table as part of a distributed transaction
D. Execute SQL statements that contain database vendor specific syntax
E. Execute simple SQL Queries against an external database
700-070 exam Answer: A,D
Question No : 31 For a SOAP Service, PRPC applies rule and data instances in which execution order? (Choose One)
A. 1. Service Package
2. Service Rule
3. Map Inbound Data
4. Service Activity
5. Map Outbound Data
B. 1. Service Rule
2. Service Package
3. Map Inbound Data
4. Service Activity
5. Map Outbound Data
C. 1. Map Inbound Data
2. Service Activity
3. Map Outbound Data
4. Service Package
5. Service Rule
D. 1. Map Outbound Data
2. Service Activity
3. Map Inbound Data
4. Service Rule
5. Service Package
Question No : 32 What cannot be done using the Connector and Metadata Wizard? (Choose One)
A. Generate a data structure defined by an XSD file
B. Generate connector rules for a WSDL file
C. Generate a WSDL file
D. Delete the files that are created by the wizard 700-070 dumps Answer: C
Question No : 33 Which method of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration of a listener? (Choose One)
Question No : 34 Which of the following rule is most appropriate to read a comma separate value file? (Choose One)
A. Parse Structured
B. Parse XML
C. Parse Delimited
D. Map Structured
700-070 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 35 The connector rules can be invoked from ________. (Choose Two)
B. Data Transform
D. Flow Action
E. Another Connector rule
Question No : 36 The “SetInfo” data transform is called by the “UpdateInfo” flow action, which is called by the “MainFlow” flow. Each rule is defined in the classes below: MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff is the class of the work object. An architect wishes to specialize “SetInfo”, and so he does a SaveAs into MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff. Will the new specialized rule be called when MainFlow is run? If so, can the original “SetInfo” rule be deleted? (Assume that UpdateInfo is the only rule that references SetInfo.) (Choose One)
A. The specialized SetInfo rule will not be called. UpdateInfo is in the more general class and therefore cannot call a rule in a more specific class.
B. The specialized SetInfo rule will be called. However, the original rule should be retained to prevent design-time validation errors.
C. The specialized SetInfo rule will be called, and the original can be deleted.
D. The specialized SetInfo rule will not be called. When two of the same rules are in an inheritance path, the rule in the more general class will be called.
700-070 vce Answer: B
Question No : 37
An Application RuleSet Stack is as follows: MyCoSelfService:01-01MyCoHR:01- 01MyCo:01-01 There are four instances of a given rulE. Which is chosen by rule resolution? (Assume that the rule is run on a work object of MyCo HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff) (Choose One)
Answer: A Question No : 38 The “Optimize for Reporting” wizard is run on a BENEFICIARYID property in a newly created BENEFICIARIES page list property. To support this action, PRPC creates all of the following, except: (Choose One)
A. A database index on the BENEFICIARYID column
B. A BENEFICIARYID database table column
C. A declarative index
D. Another BENEFICIARYID property
700-070 exam Answer: A
Question No : 39 Which is chosen by rule resolution, when the “Country” clipboard property is “Greece”? (Choose One)
An architect wishes to ensure that a rule can no longer be executed. What technique is best used to handle this situation? (Choose One)
A. Mark the rule final
B. Mark the rule blocked
C. Mark the rule withdrawn
D. Lock the ruleset version
E. Eliminate ruleset version from the application stack
Question No : 40 What is the primary benefit of having a framework layer? (Choose One)
A. It provides a reusable foundation for implementations to be built quickly
B. It provides an application that can be executed by multiple divisions
C. It improves performance by having fewer rules in the database
D. It provides a mechanism for exporting applications to different servers 700-070 dumps Answer: A
Question No : 41 If an agent runs at 2:30 PM and if it’s configured to run at 30 minutes interval with a max records of 50, when does the agent run next time? (Choose One)
A. Depends on the number of PRPC nodes
B. 30 minutes after the last run is started
C. 30 minutes after the last run is completed
D. One hour after the last run because all agents can run only once every hour
Question No : 42 Which of the following statements indicates when the PRPC engine leverages its services API layer? (Choose One)
A. When PRPC calls a SOAP service
B. When a request is coming to PRPC from another program
C. When PRPC is deployed as an enterprise application
D. When PRPC is configured to leverage external databases
700-070 pdf Answer: B
Question No : 43 Which statement is most accurate regarding PRPC locking mechanism? (Choose One)
A. Obj-Open can be used to acquire a lock
B. The lock string for an object instance of a class that belongs to a class group is determined by concatenating the “Keys” area properties on the “Locking” tab with the class group name
C. If a lock held by a requestor is soft, the requestor will need to re-acquire the lock before executing another commit operation on the object
D. A PRPC lock is not needed until the Commit operation is executed
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Question No : 17Michael E Porter developed what is popularly known as the diamond model for determining national advantages in the global business environment. According to this model. A. Factor conditions are production advantages that are nature-made or inherited. B. Foreign markets exert less influence than home markets on a firm’s ability to detect demand trends. C. Reliance on related and supporting industries in the home country weakens a firm’s international competitiveness. D. Cooperation with domestic competitors clearly aids international competitiveness. 300-175 exam Answer: B Explanation: Home demand conditions determine the inherent demand for goods or services that originate within the home country. Porter believes that home markets exert a much higher influence on a firm’s ability to recognize consumer trends than those in a foreign market. Moreover, home demand offsets innovation and product development. Home demand is a function of
(1) the mixture of customer needs and wants,
(2) their scope and growth rate,
(3) the means by which domestic preferences are communicated to international markets. Moreover, a national advantage is achieved when home demand provides more timely and clear trend indicators to domestic firms than to foreign firms. Question No : 18A. U.S firm most likely may decide to enter the Australian market because of B. Geography. C. The unmet needs of an undeveloped country. D. Psychic proximity. E. Population. Answer: C Explanation: Attractiveness of a foreign market is a function of such factors as geography, income, climate, population, and the product. Another major factor is the unmet needs of a developing nation, for example, China or India. Entry into a market abroad may be based on many factors, for example, psychic proximity. Thus, a first-time venture abroad might be in a market with a related culture, language, or laws. Question No : 19 Firms that sell products worldwide are most likely to have the lowest costs with a marketing mix that is A. Adapted to each market. B. Standardized for all markets. C. A combination of new and adapted products in each market. D. A combination of standardized products and adapted promotions. 300-175 dumps Answer: B Explanation: Firms that operate globally must choose a marketing program after considering the need for adaptation to local circumstances. The possibilities lie on a continuum from a purely standardized marketing mix to a purely adapted marketing mix. The former chooses to standardize products, promotion, and distribution. The latter adapts the elements of the mix to each local market. Worldwide standardization of all elements should be the lowest cost marketing strategy. However, even well established global brands ordinarily undergo some adaptation to local markets. Question No : 20A firm sells the same product in different countries and uses the same promotion methods. According to keegan’s model of adaptation strategies, this firm has adopted a strategy of A. Straight extension. B. Product adaptation. C. Product invention. D. Dual adaptation. Answer: A Explanation: Using a straight extension strategy, a higher profit potential exists because virtually no changes are made in the products or its promotion. There is a downside potential if foreign consumers are not familiar with this type of product or do not readily accept it. Question No : 21 A firm wishing to sell its well-known brand of men’s clothing in a certain foreign country redesigned the products because of the greater average size of consumers in that country. However, the firm retained the same basic advertising campaign. According to Keegan’s model of adaptation strategies, this firm has adopted a strategy of A. Straight extension. B. Product adaptation. C. Forward invention. D. Backward invention. 300-175 pdf Answer: B Explanation: Using a product adaptation strategy, a firm makes changes to the product for each market but not its promotion. This can reduce profit potential but may also provide a marketing advantage by taking into account local wants and needs. Question No : 22A firm that manufactures refrigerators sold ice boxes in urban areas of less developed countries. Many residents lacked electricity to power refrigerators but could purchase blocks of ice from local vendors for use in ice boxes. According to Keegan’s model of adaptation strategies, this firm adopted a strategy of A. Product adaptation. B. Dual adaptation. C. Backward invention. D. Forward invention. Answer: C Explanation: Using a product invention strategy, a new product is created specifically for a certain country or regional market. A product may either include advancements for developed countries or have certain elements removed in places where a lower cost is a key selling point. Thus, an ice box, a precursor of the modern refrigerator, is a backward invention. Question No : 23Gray market activity is in essence a form of arbitrage. To prevent this activity by their distributors, multinational firms:
I. Raise prices charged to lower-cost distributors.
II. Police the firms’ distributors.
III. Change the product. A. I only. B. I and II only. C. II and Ill only. D. I, II, and Ill. 300-175 vce Answer: D Explanation: In a gray market, products imported from one country to another are sold by persons trying to make a profit from the difference in retail prices between the two countries. These activitiesclearly lower the profits in some markets of the multinational firm that was the initial seller. One response is to monitor the practices of distributors and retaliate if necessary. A second response is to charge higher prices to the low-cost distributors to reduce their incentives to participate in a gray market. A third response is to differentiate products sold in different countries, e.g., by adapting the product or offering distinct service features. Question No : 24A firm buys new computer equipment from bankrupt companies and resells it in foreign markets at prices significantly below those charged by competitors. The firm is A. Engaged in dumping. B. Engaged in price discrimination. C. Operating in a gray market. D. Operating in a black market. Answer: C Explanation: Question No : 25
In a gray market, products imported from one country to another are sold by persons trying to make a profit from the difference in retail prices between the two countries. In essence, the seller firm in this case was exploiting a price difference between markets. A firm ships its product to a foreign subsidiary and charges a price that may increase import duties but lower the income taxes paid by the subsidiary. The most likely reason for these effects is that the: A. Price is an arm’s-length price. B. Price is a cost-plus price. C. Transfer price is too low. D. Transfer price is too high. 300-175 exam Answer: D Explanation: A transfer price is the price charged by one subunit of a firm to another. When the subsidiarybuyer is in a foreign country, the higher the transfer, the higher the potential tariffs.However, the tax levied on a subsequent sale by the subsidiary will be lower because of its higher acquisition cost. Question No : 26A global firm establishes a cost-based price for the firm’s product in each country. The most likely negative outcome is that this pricing strategy will A. Set too high a price in countries where the firm’s costs are high. B. Overprice the product in some markets and underprice the product in others. C. Create a gray market. D. Result in dumping. Answer: A Explanation: A firm may set a cost-based price in each market with a standard markup. In a region or country where costs are high, this strategy may result in prices that are too high to be competitive within the local market. Question No : 27 A firm sells its product in a foreign market for a much higher price than in the firm’s home market. The reason is most likely: A. Price elasticity of demand. B. Dumping. C. Gray market activity. D. Price escalation. 300-175 dumps Answer: D Explanation: Price escalation is caused by an accumulation of additional costs, e.g., currency fluctuations; transportation expenses; profits earned by importers, wholesalers, and retailers; and import duties. Question No : 28 A firm sold the same product in many foreign countries but changed the ad copy to allow for language and cultural differences. According to teegan’s model of adaptation strategies, the firm adopted a strategy of: A. Product adaptation. B. Communication adaptation. C. Dual adaptation. D. Straight extension. Answer: B Explanation: Communication adaptation is a strategy that does not change the products, but advertising and marketing campaigns are changed to reflect the local culture and beliefs. For example, a firm may use one message but with changes in language, name, and colors. It may use a consistent theme but change the ad copy in each market. Another option is for a firm to devise a group of ads from which each market may choose the most effective. Still another option is to develop promotion campaigns locally. Question No : 29 A firm that sells in foreign markets should consider all aspects of how products move from the firm to ultimate users. Where in the whole channel are marketing mix decisions most likely made? A. Export department of the seller firm. B. Import department of the buyer firm. C. Channels within nations. D. Channels between nations. 300-175 pdf Answer: A Explanation: Distribution channels are a necessity to ensure that goods are successfully transferred from the production facility to end users. These channels include three distinct links that must work smoothly together.
1. The international marketing headquarters (export department of international division) is where decisions are made with regard to the subsequent channels and other aspects of the marketing mix.
2. Channels between nations carry goods to foreign borders. They include air, land, sea, or rail transportation channels. At this stage, in addition to transportation methods, intermediaries are selected (e.g., agents or trading companies) and financing and risk management decisions are reached.
3. Channels within nations take the goods from the border or entry point to the ultimate users of the products. Among nations, the number of levels of distribution, the types of channels, and the size of retailers vary substantially.
Question No : 30
The inherent attractiveness of a national market is most likely increased by which factor? A. The firm’s strategic position. B. The market’s exclusion from a regional free trade zone. C. Unmet needs of a developing nation. D. Product adaptation is costly. Answer: C Explanation: Question No : 31 Attractiveness is a function of such factors as geography, income, climate, population, and the product. Another major factor is the unmet needs of a developing nation, for example, China or India. A firm considering entry into a market abroad may make the selection based on many criteria. For example, a Portuguese firm applying a psychic proximity criterion will most likely choose to enter which market? A. Afghanistan. B. China. C. India. D. Brazil. 300-175 vce Answer: D Explanation: Psychic proximity means the nearness of the market’s culture, language, and laws to those of the firm’s home country. For example, Portuguese is spoken in Brazil. Question No : 32 Developing brand equity in a foreign market may be desirable but is subject to considerable risk. A global firm launching a new product in a new market most likely should
A. Initially place most of the firm’s emphasis on advertising geared to the local culture. B. Fully decentralize control of the marketing process. C. Avoid creating partnerships with local distribution channels to avoid dilution of the brand. D. Balance standardization and customization of the product. Answer: D
Explanation: The firm should determine the ratio of standardization and customization. Products that can be sold virtually unchanged throughout several markets provide a greater profit opportunity for a global firm. However, cultural differences may require extensive customization to appeal to markets in different countries.
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QUESTION 110 What are the two technologies that support AFT? (Choose two)
B. SNAT C. NAT64
F. NAT-6to4 400-251 exam Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 111 According to RFC 4890, which three message must be dropped at the transit firewall/router?(Choose three.)
A. Router Renumbering(Type 138)
B. Node Information Query(Type 139)
C. Router Solicitation(Type 133)
D. Node information Response(Type
E. Router Advertisement(Type 134)
F. Neighbor Solicitation(Type 135) Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 112 Which two options are disadvantages of MPLS layers 3 VPN services? (choose two)
A. They requires cooperation with the service provider to implement transport of non-IP traffic.
B. SLAs are not supported by the service provider.
C. It requires customers to implement QoS to manage congestion in the network.
D. Integration between Layers 2 and 3 peering services is not supported.
E. They may be limited by the technology offered by the service provider.
F. They can transport only IPv6 routing traffic. 400-251 dumps Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 113 From the list below, which one is the major benefit of AMP Threat GRID?
A. AMP Threat Grid collects file information from customer servers and run tests on them to see if they are infected with viruses
B. AMP Threat Grid learns ONLY from data you pass on your network and not from anything else to monitor for suspicious behavior. This makes the system much faster and efficient
C. AMP Threat Grid combines Static, and Dynamic Malware analysis with threat intelligence into one combined solution
D. AMP Threat Grid analyzes suspicious behavior in your network against exactly 400 behavioral indicators Correct Answer: C QUESTION 114 Which statement best describes the concepts of rootkits and privilege escalation?
A. Rootkits propagate themselves.
B. Privilege escalation is the result of a rootkit.
C. Rootkits are a result of a privilege escalation.
D. Both of these require a TCP port to gain access. 400-251 pdf Correct Answer: B QUESTION 115 Which two statements about PVLAN port types are true ? (Choose two)
A. A promiscuous port can send traffic to all ports within a broadcast domain
B. An isolated port can receive traffic t from promiscuous ports in any community on its Broadcast domain, but can send traffic only to ports in its own community
C. An isolated port can send and receive traffic only to and from promiscuous ports
D. A community port can send traffic to promiscuous ports in other communities its Broadcast domain
E. A community port can send traffic to community ports in other communities its Broadcast domain
F. A promiscuous can send traffic to to community ports in other Broadcast domainS Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 116 On an ASA firewall in multiple context mode running version 8.X, what is the default number of VPN site to-site tunnels per context?
A. 2 sessions
B. 4 sessions
C. 1 session
D. 0 sessions 400-251 vce Correct Answer: A QUESTION 117 Which two options describe the main purpose of EIGRP authentication?(Choose two)
A. to allow faster convergence
B. to identify authorized peers
C. to provide redundancy
D. to provide routing updates confidentiality
E. to prevent injection of incorrect routing information Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 118 In a Cisco ASA multiple-context mode of operation configuration ,what three session types are resource limited by default when their context is a member of the default class?(Choose three)
A. ASDM sessions
B. Telnet sessions
C. IPSec sessions
D. SSL VPN sessions
E. TCP sessions
F. SSH sessions 400-251 exam Correct Answer: ABF QUESTION NO: 119 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework 3.5. The application rarely experiences errors that cannot be reproduced on a test environment. You are required to ensure that the application meets the following requirements:
l All unanticipated errors are logged.
l Logging is configured with a least amount of alteration to the application code. What will you do? A. Override the base class for all forms in the application to add the Try/Catch blocks to all the major functionalities. B. Enable the <customErrors> element in the Web.config file and set the mode attribute to On . C. Enable the <customErrors> element in the Web.config file and set the mode attribute to RemoteOnly. D. Add an event handler for the Application.Error event to the Global.asax file of the applicatio n. Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 120 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its application development platform. You have recently finished the development of an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework 3.5. The application must be deployed by using the The application has several Web forms. You need to implement Really Simple Syndication (RSS) feeds functionality. The RSS feeds will be used by the You must ensure that the application displays the RSS-formatted information when accessing the given URL. What will you do to accomplish this? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two. A. Create and register a custom HttpHandler class that releases the RSS feeds. B. Create a Web form named Updates that releases the RSS feeds. C. Create an ASMX Web service component named Updates. D. Add the HttpHandler class to the .rss extension. E. Create and register a custom HttpModule class. 400-251 dumps Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 121 You work as an Enterprise Application Developer for SunInfo Inc. The company uses Visual Studio 2008 as its application development platform. You create a Windows Forms application using .NET Framework 3.5. You want to notify the users when a print job has finished. Which of the following events will you use to accomplish the task? A. PrintDocument.PrintPage B. PrintDocument.EndPrint C. PrintDocument.QueryPageSettings D. PrintDocument.BeginPrint Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 122 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You create a Web service using .NET Framework 2.0. You want the Web service to utilize a two step process to map XML generated by Web methods to .NET objects. What will you do to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two. A. Use deserialization B. Use serialization C. Use Marshal-by-ref objects D. Use Marshal-by-value objects 400-251 pdf Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 123 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished development of Web services using the .NET Framework. The access control to Web services is part of your accountability. You arecurrently revealing an existing class as a XML Web service. You are required to ensure that the XML Web service is exclusively accessible to Web service clients within the ABC Inc. domain. To fulfill this requirement you want to change the access modifiers on methods that must be represented as Web methods. What will you do to accomplish this task? A. Use the Public access modifier for each Web method. B. Use the Private access modifier for each Web method. C. Use the Internal or Friend access modifier for each Web method. D. Use the Protected access modifier for each Web method. Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 124 You work as a Web Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create a Web application using .NET Framework 2.0. You add a Web Form that contains a button named bCancel. The button allows users to exit the form. When users click the button, validation should not occur. However, during testing you find that clicking the button does not allow users to exit the form. You need to ensure that users can always exit the page. What will you do? A. Set the CausesValidation property of the bCancel button to false. B. Set the AccessibleName property of the validation controls on the Web Form to “false”. C. Set the ControlToValidate property of the validation controls on the Web Form to the ID of the control. D. Set the Enabled property of the validation controls on the Web Form to false. 400-251 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 125 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its application development platform. You are creating an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET Framework 3.5. The application stores sensitive profile data in a MS SQL Server 2008 database. You are required to make sure that the profile data never stored in clear text. What will you do? A. Create a strongly typed custom ProfileProvider class. In the ProfileProvider class, encrypt the provided information before storing it in the database. B. Use the ASP.NET IIS Registration Tool to encrypt the connection string to connect to the SQL Server database. C. Create a custom profile provider. In the custom provider, encrypt the provided informationbefore storing it in the database. D. Enable the SSL encryption for the SQL Server connections. Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 126 Allen works as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. He develops an application using Visual Studio .NET 2005. Only the employees of the company use the application. Allen wants to ensure that when a request on a page is made by a user the application asks for his authentication. Which of the following actions will Allen take to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two. A. Specify User.Identity to authenticate the user. B. Set the impersonate attribute of the <identity> element to true. C. Specify the username and password attributes. D. Set the impersonate attribute of the <identity> element to false.
400-251 exam Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 127 George works as a Software Developer for GenTech Inc. He creates an application named App1 using Visual Studio .NET. App1 uses the version 220.127.116.11 of an assembly named Assembly1. However, he wants App1 to use a new version i.e. 18.104.22.168 of Assembly1. Therefore, he needs to specify Assembly1’s location so that App1 can use version 22.214.171.124 of Assembly1. What will
George use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. An unmanaged code. B. A managed code. C. The <probing> element. D. The <codeBase> element. Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 128 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its application development platform. You are creating an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework 3.5. The application will be deployed on an intranet server of the company. You require that the application meets the following requirements:
l Users can log on to the application by using their Active Directory credentials.
l Each Web page in the application must display user name and password controls for an unauthenticated user.
What will you do to accomplish this? A. Use Forms authentication and use the SqlMembershipProvider class. B. Use Forms authentication and use the ActiveDirectoryMembershipProvider class. C. Use Windows authentication and enable impersonation. D. Use Windows authentication and disable impersonation. 400-251 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 129 Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its application development platform. He creates an application using .NET Framework. He wants to encrypt all his e-mails that he sends to anyone. Which of the following will he use to accomplish the task? A. PPP B. PPTP C. FTP D. PGP Answer: D
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Exam Code: 300-170
Exam Name: DCVAI Implementing Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Automation (DCVAI)
QUESTION NO: 62 What does the acronym SATA mean? A. Serial Advanced Technology Attachment B. SCSI attached Tunneled architecture C. Serial attached Tunneled architecture D. Serial Attached Technology Architecture
300-170 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 63 Which RAID level is ideal for video production and live video streaming, image editing, prepress applications, and any application requiring high throughput? A. RAID 1 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6 Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 64 Which approach is commonly used for disaster recovery applications? A. snapshots B. RAID 5 C. replication D. mirroring 300-170 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 65 Which connectivity types are associated with block level access A. DAS and SAN B. NAS and SAN C. LAN and SAN D. NAS and DAS Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 66 From a business perspective a well managed archive is particularly important in which situation? A. in the event of loss of power at the primary data center B. when an administrator accidentally formats the wrong file system C. in the event of liigation D. when a user accidentally deletes an important email
300-170 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 67 What is one advantage of hardware RAID controllers? A. Volume management is performed by the host B. Volume management is performed bu the switch C. Parity calculation by the server and cache memory on the RAID controller increases read and write performance D. Dedicated cache memory increases server write performance Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 68 Which RAID levels combine mirroring and striping? A. RAID 0/1 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 4 D. RAID 5
300-170 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 69 What describe RAID 5? A. striping B. mirroring C. parallel access with dedicated parity D. independent access with interleaved parity Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 70 Which component in an IP storage application requires configuration management? A. HBA B. VLAN C. ISL D. VSAN
300-170 exam Answer: B
Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question You have been appointed as a consultant to the Lead Enterprise Architect of an international agricultural company that exports bulbs, flowers and seeds worldwide. The company has its headquarters in the Netherlands, and has sales and distribution centers in over 30 countries worldwide. Several of these centers include administrative, manufacturing, and research facilities. To achieve full integration of their research capabilities with their development centers located in various climate zones, the company wants to develop strong self-directed teams in each location. It also wants to define new business models that are profitable while reducing their impact on the environment. The management team is deeply committed to ensuring that the company is a world leader in socially responsible seed
development with a business strategy that focuses on profitability through environmentally friendly operating processes. The international operations of the company are subject to legal and regulatory requirements for each country where they
operate. The production of genetically modified seeds has governmental controls that are strictly enforced and compliance is critical. Recently a competitor was heavily fined for violating the regulations in a country where it was developing pest resistant seeds. The Governing Board is concerned about the risks posed in this complex global environment, and as a result has approved the expenditure of resources to establish an Enterprise Architecture program. They have requested to be informed about the status of projects that could impact regulatory compliance. They also want to enable the corporate legal
staff and auditors to analyze proposed architectures to ensure that they are within the legal guidelines for a given location. In addition, the research organization should be able to see that the architecture is appropriate for its needs. TOGAF 9 has been mandated as the framework for the development and evolution of the Enterprise Architecture practice. The Preliminary Phase has been completed to establish the enterprise architecture capability for this project. Refer to the Scenario You have been asked to recommend an approach that would enable the development of an architecture that addresses the needs of the Governing Board, legal staff, auditors and the research organization. Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the 300-170 dumps best answer?
A. You recommend that each project architecture activity is developed using a consistent
modeling approach that is uniform across all architecture projects. Each architecture should be defined based on this fixed set of models so that all concerned parties can examine the models to ensure that their issues and concerns have been addressed.
B. You recommend that a special report be created for those groups that have sufficient power and level of interest. This report should summarize the key features of the architecture with respect to the particular location. Each of these reports should reflect the stakeholders1 requirements.
C. You recommend that a set of models be created for each project architecture that can be used to ensure that the system will be compliant with the local regulations. Stakeholders should then view the models to verify that their concerns have been
D. You recommend that a stakeholder map be developed. This will allow the architects to define groups of stakeholders that share common concerns. A set of views should be defined to address the concerns for each group of stakeholders. Architecture models should then be created for each view to address the stakeholders’ concerns.
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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Which two Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VWware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose two )
1.access control lists
4.port state migration
5.DV Port Groups
200-155 exam Answer: AB
When using a Cisco UCS Director, a typical workflow consists of which two terms? (Choose Two )
Which model is a deployment model in cloud computing?
4.collapsed cloud 200-155 dumps Answer: A
Which statement about a bridge domain is true?
A bridge domain must be liked to one internal network and one external network
A bridge domain must be linked to a physical domain
A bridge domain typically has at least one subnet that Is associated with it
A bridge domain must have at least one external network that is associated with it
Which two options are primary elements of a tenant? (Choose two )
200-155 pdf Answer: BC QUESTION NO: 77 What impact does the 3-bit User Priority field in an 802.1q frame have to help voice quality in LAN based communications? A. It stipulates the format of the MAC address for each network host. B. It names a collision domain. C. It replaces a system’s MAC address. D. It identifies the prioritization settings. Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 78 You need to choose a codec according to the following parameters:
– The codec should be standard for convergent voice and video calls.
– Due to the limited capability of the IP phones, the codec should require as little computation power as possible.
– The codec should create voice at a bit rate of 8 Kbps. Which codec should you choose? A. G.711 B. G.723.1 C. G.726 D. G.729a
200-155 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 79 Consider the following IP address in CIDR notation: 126.96.36.199/26
How many addresses can theoretically be in each subnet? A. 62 B. 254 C. 4,094 D. 1,048,574 Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 80 You want to connect a PBX made by one manufacturer to another PBX made by a different manufacturer. You need to ensure that these interconnected PBXs will retain their basic and supplementary services. Which protocol was originally designed to allow this? A. H.225 B. H.450 C. Q.932 D. QSIG
200-155 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 81 What is the term for assigning a unique VLAN identifier to traffic controlled according to 802.1q standards? A. Frame tagging B. VLAN switching C. Packet injection D. LAN segmentation Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 82 Which of the following is most likely to cause packet loss and clicking during a phone call? A. Impedance mismatch B. Improper reference clocking C. Improper equipment grounding D. Packets arriving out of order 200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 83 Which of the following encodes messages in ASCII, uses proxies instead of gatekeepers, and is a peer-to-peer protocol? A. SIP B. H.323 C. MGCP D. The local loop Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 84 Which of the following can cause the most significant interference with WiFi communications? A. Ethernet hubs B. Television equipment C. 2.4-GHz cordless phones D. 900-MHz cordless phones
200-155 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 85 Which device specializes in admitting calls into a network, manages session traffic, and helps traffic traverse a firewall? A. Layer 3 switch B. Multipoint Control Unit (MCU) C. IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS) D. Session Border Controller (SBC) Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 86 When data is sent down to the session layer of the OSI/RM, the PDU consists of which encapsulated components? A. Physical header, network header, data B. Data, application header, presentation header C. Network header, data link header, physical header D. Application header, presentation header, transport header
200-155 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 87 A traditional PBX generally offers all of the following features EXCEPT: A. Voice mail B. Call forwarding C. Call interruption D. Find me/follow me Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 88 You are implementing an IPsec VPN for voice calls. These calls will pass from one corporate firewall to another. Both firewalls use Network Address Translation (NAT). Which form of IPsec will you implement? A. Tunnel mode using the AH security protocol B. Transport mode using the AH security protocol C. Tunnel mode using the ESP security protocol D. Transport mode using the ESP security protocol
200-155 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 89 Which problem typically occurs if a jitter buffer is too small? A. Too many delays will occur. B. Too few packets will be re-sent. C. Too few interfaces will be addressed. D. Too many packets will be discarded. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 90 You work as a software developer for ManSoft Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You use C#. NET to create an assembly that will be consumed by other Visual Studio .NET applications. No Permissions should be granted to this assembly unless the assembly makes a minimum permission request. You need to write a code for the assembly that makes a minimum permission request. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish this task? A. [Assembly: PermissionSet(SecurityAction.PermitOnly, Unrestricted = true)] B. [Assembly: PermissionSet(SecurityAction.RequestOptional, Unrestricted = true)] C. [Assembly: PermissionSet(SecurityAction.PermitOnly, Unrestricted = false)] D. [Assembly: PermissionSet(SecurityAction.RequestOptional, Unrestricted = false)] 200-155 dumpsAnswer: D
QUESTION NO: 91 You work as a Windows Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its application development platform. You create a Windows application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application allows computer engineers to design circuit boards for different types of hardware. You create a custom control that represents the design surface. You are required to highlight the vacant areas on the design surface where a component can be dropped. Which of the following events will you use to accomplish this task? A. DragOver B. QueryContinueDrag C. DragEnter D. DragLeave Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 93 You work as a Web Application Developer for SunInfo Inc. The company uses Visual Studio 2008 as its application development platform. You create a Web application using .NET Framework 3.5. You want to redirect users to a default error page if an unhandled error occurs within your site. Which of the following actions will you perform to accomplish the task? A. Set the mode attribute of the customErrors element to Off and the defaultRedirect attribute to an error page within your site. B. Set the statusCode attribute of the error element to 404 and the redirect attribute to a custom error page. C. Set the redirect attribute of the error element to an error page within your site. D. Set the mode attribute of the customErrors element to On and the defaultRedirect attribute to an error page within your site.
200-155 pdf Answer: D
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