[2021.7 Exam Guide] Isaca CISA exam dumps pdf and practice questions free

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Updated Isaca CISA exam questions

QUESTION 1
A transaction journal provides the information necessary for detecting unauthorized ___________ (fill in the blank) from
a terminal.
A. Deletion
B. Input
C. Access
D. Duplication
Correct Answer: B
A transaction journal provides the information necessary for detecting unauthorized input from a terminal.


QUESTION 2
Which of the following layer of an enterprise data flow architecture is concerned with basic data communication?
A. Data preparation layer
B. Desktop Access Layer
C. Internet/Intranet layer
D. Data access layer
Correct Answer: C
Internet/Intranet layer ?This layer is concerned with basic data communication. Included here are browser
based user interface and TCP/IP networking.
For CISA exam you should know below information about business intelligence:
Business intelligence(BI) is a broad field of IT encompasses the collection and analysis of information to
assist decision making and assess organizational performance. To deliver effective BI, organizations need
to design and implement a data architecture. The complete data architecture consists of two components
The enterprise data flow architecture (EDFA)
A logical data architecture
Various layers/components of this data flow architecture are as follows:
Presentation/desktop access layer ?This is where end users directly deal with information. This layer
includes familiar desktop tools such as spreadsheets, direct querying tools, reporting and analysis suits offered by vendors such as Congas and business objects, and purpose built application such as balanced
source cards and digital dashboards.
Data Source Layer ?Enterprise information derives from number of sources:
Operational data ?Data captured and maintained by an organization\\’s existing systems, and usually held in
system-specific database or flat files. External Data ?Data provided to an organization by external sources.
This could include data such as customer demographic and market share information.
Nonoperational data ?Information needed by end user that is not currently maintained in a computer
accessible format.
Core data warehouse ?This is where all the data of interest to an organization is captured and organized to
assist reporting and analysis. DWs are normally instituted as large relational databases. A property constituted DW
should support three basic form of an inquiry.
Drilling up and drilling down ?Using dimension of interest to the business, it should be possible to aggregate data as
well as drill down. Attributes available at the more granular levels of the warehouse can also be used to refine the
analysis.
Drill across ?Use common attributes to access a cross section of information in the warehouse such as sum sales
across all product lines by customer and group of customers according to length of association with the company.
Historical Analysis ?The warehouse should support this by holding historical, time variant data. An example of historical
analysis would be to report monthly store sales and then repeat the analysis using only customer who were preexisting
at the start of the year in order to separate the effective new customer from the ability to generate repeat business with
existing customers.
Data Mart Layer ?Data mart represents subset of information from the core DW selected and organized to meet the
needs of a particular business unit or business line. Data mart can be relational databases or some form on-line
analytical processing (OLAP) data structure.
Data Staging and quality layer ?This layer is responsible for data copying, transformation into DW format and quality
control. It is particularly important that only reliable data into core DW. This layer needs to be able to deal with problems
periodically thrown by operational systems such as change to account number format and reuse of old accounts and
customer numbers.
Data Access Layer ?This layer operates to connect the data storage and quality layer with data stores in the data
source layer and, in the process, avoiding the need to know to know exactly how these data stores are organized.
Technology now permits SQL access to data even if it is not stored in a relational database.
Data Preparation layer ?This layer is concerned with the assembly and preparation of data for loading into data marts.
The usual practice is to per-calculate the values that are loaded into OLAP data repositories to increase access speed.
Data mining is concern with exploring large volume of data to determine patterns and trends of information. Data mining
often identifies patterns that are counterintuitive due to number and complexity of data relationships. Data quality needs
to be very high to not corrupt the result.
Metadata repository layer ?Metadata are data about data. The information held in metadata layer needs to extend
beyond data structure names and formats to provide detail on business purpose and context. The metadata layer
should be comprehensive in scope, covering data as they flow between the various layers, including documenting
transformation and validation rules.
Warehouse Management Layer ?The function of this layer is the scheduling of the tasks necessary to build and maintain the DW and populate data marts. This layer is also involved in administration of security.
Application messaging layer ?This layer is concerned with transporting information between the various layers. In
addition to business data, this layer encompasses generation, storage and targeted communication of control
messages.
Internet/Intranet layer ?This layer is concerned with basic data communication. Included here are browser based user
interface and TCP/IP networking.
Various analysis models used by data architects/ analysis follows:
Activity or swim-lane diagram ?De-construct business processes.
Entity relationship diagram ?Depict data entities and how they relate. These data analysis methods obviously play an
important part in developing an enterprise data model. However, it is also crucial that knowledgeable business operative
is involved in the process. This way proper understanding can be obtained of the business purpose and context of the
data. This also mitigates the risk of replication of suboptimal data configuration from existing systems and database into
DW.
The following were incorrect answers:
Desktop access layer or presentation layer is where end users directly deal with information. This layer includes familiar
desktop tools such as spreadsheets, direct querying tools, reporting and analysis suits offered by vendors such as
Congas and business objects, and purpose built application such as balanced source cards and digital dashboards.
Data preparation layer ?This layer is concerned with the assembly and preparation of data for loading into
data marts. The usual practice is to per-calculate the values that are loaded into OLAP data repositories to
increase access speed.
Data access layer ?his layer operates to connect the data storage and quality layer with data stores in the
data source layer and, in the process, avoiding the need to know to know exactly how these data stores
are organized. Technology now permits SQL access to data even if it is not stored in a relational database.
Reference:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 188 

……

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QUESTION 1
The specific advantage of white box testing is that it:
A. verifies a program can operate successfully with other parts of the system.
B. ensures a program\\’s functional operating effectiveness without regard to the internal program structure.
C. determines procedural accuracy or conditions of a program\\’s specific logic paths.
D. examines a program\\’s functionality by executing it in a tightly controlled or virtual environment with restricted access
to the host system.
Correct Answer: C
White box testing assesses the effectiveness of software program logic. Specifically, test data are used in determining
procedural accuracy or conditions of a program\\’s logic paths. Verifying the program can operate successfully with
other parts of the system is sociability testing. Testing the program\\’s functionality without knowledge of internal
structures is black box testing. Controlled testing of programs in a semi-debugged environment, either heavily controlled
step-by-step or via monitoring in virtual machines, is sand box testing.

QUESTION 2
Off-site data storage should be kept synchronized when preparing for recovery of time- sensitive data such as that
resulting from which of the following?
A. Financial reporting
B. Sales reporting
C. Inventory reporting
D. Transaction processing
Correct Answer: D
Off-site data storage should be kept synchronized when preparing for the recovery of timesensitive data such as that
resulting from transaction processing.

QUESTION 3
A hardware control that helps to detect errors when data are communicated from one computer to another is known as
a:
A. duplicate check.
B. table lookup.
C. validity check.
D. parity check.
Correct Answer: D
A parity check will help to detect data errors when data are read from memory or communicated from one computer to
another. A one-bit digit (either 0 or 1) is added to a data item to indicate whether the sum of that data item\\’s bit is odd
or even. When the parity bit disagrees with the sum of the other bits, an error report is generated.

QUESTION 4
After observing suspicious activities in a server, a manager requests a forensic analysis. Which of the following findings
should be of MOST concern to the investigator?
A. Server is a member of a workgroup and not part of the server domain
B. Guest account is enabled on the server
C. Recently, 100 users were created in the server
D. Audit logs are not enabled for the server
Correct Answer: D
Audit logs can provide evidence which is required to proceed with an investigation and should not be disabled. For
business needs, a server can be a member of a workgroup and, therefore, not a concern. Having a guest account
enabled on a system is a poor security practice but not a forensic investigation concern. Recently creating 100 users in
the server may have been required to meet business needs and should not be a concern.

QUESTION 5
During an audit of a mission-critical system hosted in an outsourced data center, an IS auditor discovers that contracted
routine maintenance for the alternate power generator was not performed. Which of the following should be the
auditor\\’s MAIN concern?
A. Fraudulent behavior by the outsourcer charging for work not performed
B. Failure of the alternate power generator during a power outage
C. High repair costs if faulty generator parts are not detected in a timely manner
D. Loss of warranty due to lack of system maintenance
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following online auditing techniques is most effective for the early detection of errors or irregularities?
A. Embedded audit module
B. Integrated test facility
C. Snapshots
D. Audit hooks
Correct Answer: D
The audit hook technique involves embedding code in application systems for the examination of selected transactions.
This helps an IS auditor to act before an error or an irregularity gets out of hand. An embedded audit module involves
embedding specially-written software in the organization\\’s host application system so that application systems are
monitored on a selective basis. An integrated test facility is used when it is not practical to use test data, and snapshots
are used when an audit trail is required.

QUESTION 7
In a typical network architecture used for e-commerce, a load balancer is normally found between the: A. routers and
the web servers.
B. mail servers and the mail repositories.
C. users and the external gateways.
D. databases and the external gateways.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the MOST important factor when determining the frequency of information security risk
reassessment?
A. Audit findings
B. Risk priority
C. Mitigating controls
D. Risk metrics
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following ensures the availability of transactions in the event of a disaster?
A. Send tapes hourly containing transactions offsite,
B. Send tapes daily containing transactions offsite.
C. Capture transactions to multiple storage devices.
D. Transmit transactions offsite in real time.
Correct Answer: D
The only way to ensure availability of all transactions is to perform a real-time transmission to an offsite facility. Choices
A and B are not in real time and, therefore, would not include all the transactions. Choice C does not ensure availability
at an offsite location.

QUESTION 10
Which of the following attack is MOSTLY performed by an attacker to steal the identity information of a user such as
credit card number, passwords, etc?
A. Smurf attack
B. Traffic analysis
C. Harming
D. Interrupt attack
Correct Answer: C
Harming is a cyber attack intended to redirect a website\\’s traffic to another, bogus site. Harming can be conducted
either by changing the hosts file on a victim\\’s computer or by exploitation of a vulnerability in DNS server software.
DNS
servers are computers responsible for resolving Internet names into their real IP addresses. Compromised DNS servers
are sometimes referred to as “poisoned”. Harming requires unprotected access to target a computer, such as altering a
customer\\’s home computer, rather than a corporate business server.
The term “phrasing” is a neologism based on the words “farming” and “phishing”. Phishing is a type of socialengineering attack to obtain access credentials, such as user names and passwords. In recent years, both phrasing and
phishing
have been used to gain information for online identity theft. Phrasing has become of major concern to businesses
hosting ecommerce and online banking websites. Sophisticated measures known as anti-harming are required to
protect
against this serious threat. Antivirus software and spyware removal software cannot protect against harming.
For your exam you should know the information below:
Phishing is the attempt to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card details (and
sometimes, indirectly, money) by masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication.
Communications
purporting to be from popular social web sites, auction sites, banks, online payment processors or IT administrators are
commonly used to lure unsuspecting public. Phishing emails may contain links to websites that are infected with
malware.
Phishing is typically carried out by email spoofing or instant messaging, and it often directs users to enter details at a
fake website whose look and feel are almost identical to the legitimate one. Phishing is an example of social
engineering
techniques used to deceive users, and exploits the poor usability of current web security technologies. Attempts to deal
with the growing number of reported phishing incidents include legislation, user training, public awareness, and
technical security measures.
Spear phishing – Phishing attempts directed at specific individuals or companies have been termed spear phishing.
Attackers may gather personal information about their target to increase their probability of success.
Link manipulation
Most methods of phishing use some form of technical deception designed to make a link in an email (and the spoofed
website it leads to) appear to belong to the spoofed organization. Misspelled URLs or the use of sub domains are
common
tricks used by phishes. In the following example URL, http://www.yourbank.example.com/, it appears as though the URL
will take you to the example section of your bank website; actually this URL points to the “your bank” (i.e. phishing)
section of the example website. Another common trick is to make the displayed text for a link (the text between the are
tags) suggest a reliable destination, when the link actually goes to the phishes\\’ site. The following example link, //
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Genuine, appears to direct the user to an article entitled “Genuine”; clicking on it will in fact take
the user to the article entitled “Deception”. In the lower left hand corner of most browsers users can preview and verify
where the link is going to take them. Hovering your cursor over the link for a couple of seconds may do a similar thing,
but this can still be set by the phishes through the HTML tooltip tag.
Website forgery
Once a victim visits the phishing website, the deception is not over. Some phishing scams use JavaScript commands in
order to alter the address bar. This is done either by placing a picture of a legitimate URL over the address bar, or by
closing the original bar and opening up a new one with the legitimate URL.
An attacker can even use flaws in a trusted website\\’s own scripts against the victim. These types of attacks (known as
cross-site scripting) are particularly problematic, because they direct the user to sign in at their bank or service\\’s own
web
page, where everything from the web address to the security certificates appears correct. In reality, the link to the
website is crafted to carry out the attack, making it very difficult to spot without specialist knowledge.
The following answers are incorrect:
Smurf Attack ?Occurs when mix-configured network device allow packet to be sent to all hosts on a particular network
via the broadcast address of the network
Traffic analysis – is the process of intercepting and examining messages in order to deduce information from patterns in
communication. It can be performed even when the messages are encrypted and cannot be decrypted. In general, the
greater the number of messages observed, or even intercepted and stored, the more can be inferred from the traffic.
Traffic analysis can be performed in the context of military intelligence, counter-intelligence, or pattern-of-life analysis,
and is
a concern in computer security.
Interrupt attack- Interrupt attack occurs when a malicious action is performed by invoking the operating system to
execute a particular system call.
Reference:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 323
Official ISC2 guide to CISSP CBK 3rd Edition Page number326
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pharming
 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following method is recommended by security professional to PERMANENTLY erase sensitive data on
magnetic media?
A. Degaussing
B. Overwrite every sector of magnetic media with pattern of 1\\’s and 0\\’s
C. Format magnetic media
D. Delete File allocation table
Correct Answer: A
PERMANENTLY is the keyword used in the question. You need to find out data removal method which remove data
permanently from magnetic media.
Degaussing is the most effective method out of all provided choices to erase sensitive data on magnetic media provided
magnetic media is not requiring to be reuse. Some degausses can destroy drives. The security professional should
exercise caution when recommending or using degausses on media for reuse.
A device that performs degaussing generates a coercive magnetic force that reduces the magnetic flux density of the
storage media to zero. This magnetic force is what properly erases data from media. Data are stored on magnetic
media by
the representation of the polarization of the atoms. Degaussing changes this polarization (magnetic alignment) by using
a type of large magnet to bring it back to its original flux (magnetic alignment).
For your exam you should know the information below:
When media is to be reassigned (a form of object reuse), it is important that all residual data is carefully removed.
Simply deleting files or formatting the media does not actually remove the information. File deletion and media
formatting often simply remove the pointers to the information. Providing assurance for object reuse requires specialized
tools and
techniques according to the type of media on which the data resides.
Specialized hardware devices known as degausses can be used to erase data saved to magnetic media. The measure
of the amount of energy needed to reduce the magnetic field on the media to zero is known as coercivity. It is important
to
make sure that the coercivity of the degasser is of sufficient strength to meet object reuse requirements when erasing
data. If a degasser is used with insufficient coercivity, then a remanence of the data will exist.
Remanence is the measure of the existing magnetic field on the media; it is the residue that remains after an object is
degaussed or written over. Data is still recoverable even when the remanence is small. While data remanence exists,

there
is no assurance of safe object reuse. Some degausses can destroy drives. The security professional should exercise
caution when recommending or using degausses on media for reuse.
Software tools also exist that can provide object reuse assurance. These tools overwrite every sector of magnetic media
with a random or predetermined bit pattern. Overwrite methods are effective for all forms of electronic media with the
exception of read-only optical media. There is a drawback to using overwrite software. During normal write operations
with magnetic media, the head of the drive moves back-and-forth across the media as data is written. The track of the
head
does not usually follow the exact path each time. The result is a miniscule amount of data remanence with each pass.
With specialized equipment, it is possible to read data that has been overwritten.
To provide higher assurance in this case, it is necessary to overwrite each sector multiple times. Security practitioners
should keep in mind that a one-time pass may be acceptable for noncritical information, but sensitive data should be
overwritten with multiple passes. Overwrite software can also be used to clear the sectors within solid-state media such
as USB thumb drives. It is suggested that physical destruction methods such as incineration or secure recycling should
be considered for solid-state media that is no longer used.
The last form of preventing unauthorized access to sensitive data is media destruction. Shredding, burning, grinding,
and pulverizing are common methods of physically destroying media. Degaussing can also be a form of media
destruction.
High-power degausses are so strong in some cases that they can literally bend and warp the platters in a hard drive.
Shredding and burning are effective destruction methods for non-rigid magnetic media. Indeed, some shredders are
capable of shredding some rigid media such as an optical disk. This may be an effective alternative for any optical
media
containing nonsensitive information due to the residue size remaining after feeding the disk into the machine.
However, the residue size might be too large for media containing sensitive information. Alternatively, grinding and
pulverizing are acceptable choices for rigid and solid-state media. Specialized devices are available for grinding the face
of
optical media that either sufficiently scratches the surface to render the media unreadable or actually grinds off the data
layer of the disk. Several services also exist which will collect drives, destroy them on site if requested and provide
certification of completion. It will be the responsibility of the security professional to help, select, and maintain the most
appropriate solutions for media cleansing and disposal.
The following answers are incorrect:
Overwrite every sector of magnetic media with pattern of 1\\’s and 0\\’s-Less effective than degaussing provided
magnetic media is not requiring to be reuse. Format magnetic media ?Formatting magnetic media does not erase all
data. Data can
be recoverable after formatting using software tools.
Delete File allocation table-It will not erase all data. Data can be recoverable using software tools.
Reference:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 338
Official ISC2 guide to CISSP CBK 3rd Edition Page number 720.
 

QUESTION 12
Which of the following controls will MOST effectively detect the presence of bursts of errors in network transmissions?
A. Parity check
B. Echo check
C. Block sum check
D. Cyclic redundancy check
Correct Answer: D
The cyclic redundancy check (CRC) can check for a block of transmitted data. The workstations generate the CRC and
transmit it with the data. The receiving workstation computes a CRC and compares it to the transmitted CRC. if both of
them are equal. Then the block is assumed error free, in this case (such as in parity error or echo check), multiple errors
can be detected. In general, CRC can detect all single-bit and bubble-bit errors. Parity check (known as vertical
redundancy check) also involves adding a bit (known as the parity bit) to each character during transmission. In this
case, where there is a presence of bursts of errors (i.e., impulsing noise during high transmission rates), it has a
reliability of approximately 50 percent. Inhigher transmission rates, this limitation is significant. Echo checks detect line
errors by retransmitting data to the sending device for comparison with the original transmission.


QUESTION 13
A database administrator has detected a performance problem with some tables which could be solved through
denormalization. This situation will increase the risk of:
A. concurrent access.
B. deadlocks.
C. unauthorized access to data.
D. a loss of data integrity.
Correct Answer: D
Normalization is the removal of redundant data elements from the database structure. Disabling normalization in
relational databases will create redundancy and a risk of not maintaining consistency of data, with the consequent loss
of data integrity. Deadlocks are not caused by denormalization. Access to data is controlled by defining user rights to
information, and is not affected by denormalization.

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Certifications: CRISC Certification
Exam Code: CRISC
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Updated: Jun 22, 2021
Q&As: 933

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Certifications: COBIT
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Exam Name: COBIT 2019 Foundation
Updated: Jun 22, 2021
Q&As: 74

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QUESTION 1
You want to delete a WORM file from a SnapLock Enterprise volume.
Based on this scenario, which two steps must you perform to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Unmount the SnapLock volume from the NAS namespace.
B. Move the file to a non-SnapLock volume.
C. If a SnapLock audit log does not exist, create one.
D. Enable the privileged delete feature.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 2
An administrator created an SVM for a VMware vSphere 6.5 clusters. For the SVM, the NFS protocol was enabled. Data
LIFs were configured with jumbo frames. The nfs01 volume was created and mounted as the junction path /nfs01. A
VMware
an export policy that allowed all the hosts of the cluster was applied to the SVM. However, the hosts are unable to mount
the volume.
In this scenario, what caused the problem?
A. NFS v3 is not compatible with ESXi hosts.
B. The volume is not thin provisioned.
C. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) was not set properly on the ESXi hosts.
D. The default export policy needs to allow reads from the ESXi hosts.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which statement about a node-root volume is true?
A. A node-root volume is used as the root volume for all of the SVMs for that node.
B. The volume move command can be used to move a node-root volume.
C. There is only one primary root volume per node in the cluster.
D. A node-root volume may be used for customer data.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
When performing a manual MetroCluster switchover, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Only the user specified DR groups are switched over.
B. All SVMs in the disaster site are switched over.
C. All DR groups in the disaster site are switched over.
D. Only the user specified SVMs are switched over.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 5
An administrator is configuring a third-party software for NDMP. The application is targeting the IP of the data LIF of the
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SVM1 has a user called “Tom” with the backup role. Tom can connect by using SSH to the controller with the
credentials that he used to configure the third-party software. The authentication of the third-party software is failing.
In this scenario, what is the reason for the authentication failure?
A. The NDMP password has not been generated for Tom.
B. The application is not targeting the IP of the cluster or node management LIF.
C. The NDMP service is not enabled for the admin SVM.
D. The user Tom does not belong to the admin SVM.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
A storage administrator currently has an 8-node FAS8200 cluster with CIFS, NFS, and iSCSI licenses installed. In this
scenario, how many additional nodes are supported?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 4
D. 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
In which version of ONTAP did the NVMe protocol become available for SAN environments?
A. 9.4
B. 9.5
C. 9.3
D. 9.2
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 8
An administrator forgot to update the cabling sheet for a core Cisco switch and cannot recall which ports were used by
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A. network port show
B. network device-discovery show
C. network interface show
D. network port broadcast-domain show
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here

QUESTION 9
Which three tasks are SVM administrators allowed to perform? (Choose three.)
A. Configure name services.
B. Configure an aggregate.
C. Monitor jobs.
D. Configure data protocols.
E. Create a LIF.
Correct Answer: ABC
Reference:
click here

QUESTION 10
You have configured SVM Disaster Recovery on your cluster, and you set the identity-preserve option to false. In this
scenario, which objects are replicated?
A. SAN LIFs
B. NFS Export policies
C. DNS and DNS hosts
D. Snapshot copies
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here


QUESTION 11
A storage administrator has a single-node FAS cluster. The administrator wants to add a second node to convert the
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A. Add a new AFF HA pair and replace the existing FAS.
B. Add a cluster interconnect switch and a second FAS of the same model.
C. Add a new single node AFF controller to the existing FAS storage array.
D. Add a new single node FAS controller of the same model.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
Which three name services does ONTAP support? (Choose three.)
A. HTTP
B. local files
C. LDAP
D. NIS
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 13
You need to move a FlexVol volume from one SVM to another. In this situation, which command would accomplish this
task?
A. volume create
B. volume rehost
C. volume modify
D. volume move
Correct Answer: B
Reference: click here

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QUESTION 1
You have a three-tier web application with separate subnets for Web, Applications, and Database tiers. Your CISO
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Which two AWS Services cloud you leverage to build an automated notification system? (Choose two.)
A. Internet gateway
B. VPC Flow Logs
C. AWS CloudTrail
D. Lambda
E. AWS Inspector
Correct Answer: CD
References: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/security/how-to-receive-alerts-when-specific-apis-are-called-by-using-awscloudtrail-amazon-sns-and-aws-lambda/


QUESTION 2
A company uses a single connection to the internet when connecting its on-premises location to AWS. It has selected
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connection.
What steps must be taken to order the cross-connect at the Direct Connect location?
A. Obtain the LOA/CFA from the APN Partner when ordering connectivity. Upload it to the AWS Management Console
when creating a new Direct Connect connection. AWS will ensure that the cross-connect is installed.
B. Obtain the LOA/CFA from the AWS Management Console when ordering the Direct Connect connection. Provide it to
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C. Obtain the LOA/CFA each from the AWS Management Console and the APN Partner. Provide both to the Facility
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D. Identify the APN Partner in the AWS Management Console when creating the Direct Connect connection. Provide
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Correct Answer: B
  

QUESTION 3
A company has a hybrid IT architecture with two AWS Direct Connect connections to provide high availability. The
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offloading, health checks, and sticky sessions.
What should be done to meet these requirements?
A. Create a Network Load Balancer pointing to the on-premises server\\’s private IP address.
B. Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution for the on-premises service and use the public IPs of the on-premises
servers as the origin.
C. Create a Network Load Balancer pointing to the on-premises server\\’s public IP address.
D. Create an Application Load Balancer pointing to the on-premises server\\’s private IP address.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A network engineer deploys an application in a private subnet in a VPC that connects to many external video feed
providers using RTMP over the internet. A NAT gateway has been deployed in a public subnet and is working as
expected. From the Amazon EC2 instance, the application is able to connect to all feed providers except one, which
hangs when connecting. Manually testing a connection from an Amazon EC2 instance in the public subnet to the
problem feed indicates that the feed works as expected.
What is causing this issue?
A. The NAT gateway does not support fragmented packets.
B. The internet gateway only supports an MTU of 1500 bytes.
C. An Amazon EC2 instance expects to communicate with an MTU of 9001.
D. The security group on the instances does not allow PMTUD.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
A company is about to migrate an application from its on-premises data center to AWS. As part of the planning process,
the following requirements involving DNS have been identified.
On-premises systems must be able to resolve the entries in an Amazon Route 53 private hosted zone.
Amazon EC2 instances running in the organization\\’s VPC must be able to resolve the DNS names of on-premises
systems
The organization\\’s VPC uses the CIDR block 172.16.0.0/16.
Assuming that there is no DNS namespace overlap, how can these requirements be met?
A. Change the DHCP options set for the VPC to use both the Amazon-provided DNS server and the on-premises DNS
systems. Configure the on-premises DNS systems with a stub-zone, delegating the name server 172.16.0.2 as
authoritative for the Route 53 private hosted zone.
B. Deploy and configure a set of EC2 instances into the company VPC to act as DNS proxies. Configure the proxies to
forward queries for the on-premises domain to the on-premises DNS systems, and forward all other queries to
172.16.0.2. Change the DHCP options set for the VPC to use the new DNS proxies. Configure the on-premises DNS
systems with a stub-zone, delegating the name server 172.16.0.2 as authoritative for the Route 53 private hosted zone.
C. Deploy and configure a set of EC2 instances into the company VPC to act as DNS proxies. Configure the proxies to
forward queries for the on-premises domain to the on-premises DNS systems, and forward all other queries to the
Amazon-provided DNS server (172.16.0.2). Change the DHCP options set for the VPC to use the new DNS proxies.
Configure the on-premises DNS systems with a stub-zone, delegating the proxies as authoritative for the Route 53
private hosted zone.
D. Change the DHCP options set for the VPC to use both the on-premises DNS systems. Configure the on-premises
DNS systems with a stub-zone, delegating the Route 53 private hosted zone\\’s name servers as authoritative for the
Route 53 private hosted zone.
Correct Answer: C

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Amazon AWS Certified Foundational CLF-C01 exam effective practice questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which AWS hybrid storage service enables your on-premises applications to seamlessly use AWS Cloud storage
through standard file-storage protocols?
A. AWS Direct Connect
B. AWS Snowball
C. AWS Storage Gateway
D. AWS Snowball Edge
Correct Answer: C
The AWS Storage Gateway service enables hybrid cloud storage between on-premises environments and the AWS
Cloud. It seamlessly integrates on-premises enterprise applications and workflows with Amazon\\’s block and object
cloud storage services through industry-standard storage protocols. It provides low-latency performance by caching
frequently accessed data on-premises while storing data securely and durably in Amazon cloud storage services. It
provides an optimized data transfer mechanism and bandwidth management, which tolerates unreliable networks and
minimizes the amount of data being transferred. It brings the security, manageability, durability, and scalability of AWS
to existing enterprise environments through native integration with AWS encryption, identity management, monitoring,
and storage services. Typical use cases include backup and archiving, disaster recovery, moving data to S3 for in-cloud
workloads, and tiered storage.
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/storagegateway/faqs/


QUESTION 2
What can AWS edge locations be used for? (Choose two.)
A. Hosting applications
B. Delivering content closer to users
C. Running NoSQL database caching services
D. Reducing traffic on the server by caching responses
E. Sending notification messages to end-users
Correct Answer: BD
CloudFront delivers your content through a worldwide network of data centers called edge locations. When a user
requests content that you\\’re serving with CloudFront, the user is routed to the edge location that provides the lowest
latency (time delay), so that content is delivered with the best possible performance.
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudFront/latest/DeveloperGuide/Introduction.html

QUESTION 3
Which AWS service of feature can be used to monitor CPU usage?
A. AWS CloudTrail
B. VPC Flow Logs
C. Amazon CloudWatch
D. AWSConfig
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
A company is releasing a business-critical application Before the release the company needs strategic planning
assistance from AWS. During the release, it needs infrastructure event management and real-time Suppor.
How can these requirements be met?
A. Access AWS Trusted Advisor
B. Contact the AWS Partner Network (APN).
C. Sign up for AWS Enterprise Support
D. Contact AWS Professional Services
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
What is an example of agility in the AWS Cloud?
A. Access to multiple instance types
B. Access to managed services
C. Using Consolidated Billing to produce one bill
D. Decreased acquisition time for new compute resources
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/enterprise-strategy/risk-is-lack-of-agility/

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Amazon AWS Certified Specialty DAS-C01 exam effective practice questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
A media analytics company consumes a stream of social media posts. The posts are sent to an Amazon Kinesis data
stream partitioned on user_id. An AWS Lambda function retrieves the records and validates the content before loading
the posts into an Amazon Elasticsearch cluster. The validation process needs to receive the posts for a given user in the
order they were received. A data analyst has noticed that, during peak hours, the social media platform posts take more
than an hour to appear in the Elasticsearch cluster.
What should the data analyst do reduce this latency?
A. Migrate the validation process to Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose.
B. Migrate the Lambda consumers from standard data stream iterators to an HTTP/2 stream consumer.
C. Increase the number of shards in the stream.
D. Configure multiple Lambda functions to process the stream.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
A media company has been performing analytics on log data generated by its applications. There has been a recent
increase in the number of concurrent analytics jobs running, and the overall performance of existing jobs is decreasing
as the number of new jobs is increasing. The partitioned data is stored in Amazon S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access (S3
One Zone-IA) and the analytic processing is performed on Amazon EMR clusters using the EMR File System (EMRFS)
with consistent view enabled. A data analyst has determined that it is taking longer for the EMR task nodes to list
objects in Amazon S3.
Which action would MOST likely increase the performance of accessing log data in Amazon S3?
A. Use a hash function to create a random string and add that to the beginning of the object prefixes when storing the
log data in Amazon S3.
B. Use a lifecycle policy to change the S3 storage class to S3 Standard for the log data.
C. Increase the read capacity units (RCUs) for the shared Amazon DynamoDB table.
D. Redeploy the EMR clusters that are running slowly to a different Availability Zone.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An insurance company has raw data in JSON format that is sent without a predefined schedule through an Amazon
Kinesis Data Firehose delivery stream to an Amazon S3 bucket. An AWS Glue crawler is scheduled to run every 8
hours to update the schema in the data catalog of the tables stored in the S3 bucket. Data analysts analyze the data
using Apache Spark SQL on Amazon EMR set up with AWS Glue Data Catalog as the metastore. Data analysts say
that, occasionally, the data they receive is stale. A data engineer needs to provide access to the most up-to-date data.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Create an external schema based on the AWS Glue Data Catalog on the existing Amazon Redshift cluster to query
new data in Amazon S3 with Amazon Redshift Spectrum.
B. Use Amazon CloudWatch Events with the rate (1 hour) expression to execute the AWS Glue crawler every hour.
C. Using the AWS CLI, modify the execution schedule of the AWS Glue crawler from 8 hours to 1 minute.
D. Run the AWS Glue crawler from an AWS Lambda function triggered by an S3:ObjectCreated:* event notification on
the S3 bucket.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A company has 1 million scanned documents stored as image files in Amazon S3. The documents contain typewritten
application forms with information including the applicant first name, applicant last name, application date, application
type, and application text. The company has developed a machine learning algorithm to extract the metadata values
from the scanned documents. The company wants to allow internal data analysts to analyze and find applications using
the applicant name, application date, or application text. The original images should also be downloadable. Cost control
is secondary to query performance.
Which solution organizes the images and metadata to drive insights while meeting the requirements?
A. For each image, use object tags to add the metadata. Use Amazon S3 Select to retrieve the files based on the
applicant name and application date.
B. Index the metadata and the Amazon S3 location of the image file in Amazon Elasticsearch Service. Allow the data
analysts to use Kibana to submit queries to the Elasticsearch cluster.
C. Store the metadata and the Amazon S3 location of the image file in an Amazon Redshift table. Allow the data
analysts to run ad-hoc queries on the table.
D. Store the metadata and the Amazon S3 location of the image files in an Apache Parquet file in Amazon S3, and
define a table in the AWS Glue Data Catalog. Allow data analysts to use Amazon Athena to submit custom queries.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A media content company has a streaming playback application. The company wants to collect and analyze the data to
provide near-real-time feedback on playback issues. The company needs to consume this data and return results within
30 seconds according to the service-level agreement (SLA). The company needs the consumer to identify playback
issues, such as quality during a specified timeframe. The data will be emitted as JSON and may change schemas over
time.
Which solution will allow the company to collect data for processing while meeting these requirements?
A. Send the data to Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose with delivery to Amazon S3. Configure an S3 event trigger an AWS
Lambda function to process the data. The Lambda function will consume the data and process it to identify potential
playback issues. Persist the raw data to Amazon S3.
B. Send the data to Amazon Managed Streaming for Kafka and configure an Amazon Kinesis Analytics for Java
application as the consumer. The application will consume the data and process it to identify potential playback issues.

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Amazon AWS Certified Associate DVA-C01 exam effective practice questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
A company is running a custom application on a set of on-premises Linux servers that are accessed using Amazon API
Gateway AWS X-Ray tracing has been enabled on the API test stage. How can a developer enable X-Ray tracing on
the on-premises servers with the LEAST amount of configuration?
A. Install and run the X-Ray SDK on the on-premises servers to capture and relay the data to the X-Ray service.
B. Install and run the X-Ray daemon on the on-premises servers to capture and relay the data to the X-Ray service.
C. Capture incoming requests on-premises and configure an AWS Lambda function to pull, process, and relay relevant
data to X-Ray using the PutTraceSegments API call.
D. Capture incoming requests on-premises and configure an AWS Lambda function to pull, process, and relay relevant
data to X-Ray using the PutTelemetryRecords API call.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A Developer is building a serverless application using AWS Lambda and must create a REST API using an HTTP GET
method. What needs to be defined to meet this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. A [email protected] function
B. An Amazon API Gateway with a Lambda function
C. An exposed GET method in an Amazon API Gateway
D. An exposed GET method in the Lambda function
E. An exposed GET method in Amazon Route 53
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/apigateway/latest/developerguide/apigateway-getting-started-with-restapis.html

QUESTION 3
A website\\’s page load times are gradually increasing as more users access the system at the same time. Analysis
indicates that a user profile is being loaded from a database in all the web pages being visited by each user and this is
increasing the database load and the page load latency. To address this issue the Developer decides to cache the user
profile data.
Which caching strategy will address this situation MOST efficiently?
A. Create a new Amazon EC2 Instance and run a NoSQL database on it. Cache the profile data within this database
using the write-through caching strategy.
B. Create an Amazon ElastiCache cluster to cache the user profile data. Use a cache-aside caching strategy.
C. Use a dedicated Amazon RDS instance for caching profile data. Use a write-through caching strategy.
D. Create an ElastiCache cluster to cache the user profile data. Use a write-through caching strategy.
Correct Answer: B
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonElastiCache/latest/mem-ug/Strategies.html


QUESTION 4
A Developer created a dashboard for an application using Amazon API Gateway, Amazon S3, AWS Lambda, and
Amazon RDS. The Developer needs an authentication mechanism allowing a user to sign in and view the dashboard. It
must be accessible from mobile applications, desktops, and tablets, and must remember user preferences across
platforms.
Which AWS service should the Developer use to support this authentication scenario?
A. AWS KMS
B. Amazon Cognito
C. AWS Directory Service
D. Amazon IAM
Correct Answer: B
Cognito user pool provides sign up and sign in functionality along with identity pool which provides temp credentials for
using AWS services.


QUESTION 5
A developer is writing an AWS Lambda function. The developer wants to log key events that occur during the Lambda
function and include a unique identifier to associate the events with a specific function invocation. Which of the following
will help the developer accomplish this objective?
A. Obtain the request identifier from the Lambda context object. Architect the application to write logs to the console.
B. Obtain the request identifier from the Lambda event object. Architect the application to write logs to a file.
C. Obtain the request identifier from the Lambda event object. Architect the application to write logs to the console.
D. Obtain the request identifier from the Lambda context object. Architect the application to write logs to a file.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A Data Scientist is developing a machine learning model to predict future patient outcomes based on information
collected about each patient and their treatment plans. The model should output a continuous value as its prediction.
The data
available includes labeled outcomes for a set of 4,000 patients. The study was conducted on a group of individuals over
the age of 65 who have a particular disease that is known to worsen with age.
Initial models have performed poorly. While reviewing the underlying data, the Data Scientist notices that, out of 4,000
patient observations, there are 450 where the patient age has been input as 0. The other features for these
observations
appear normal compared to the rest of the sample population.
How should the Data Scientist correct this issue?
A. Drop all records from the dataset where age has been set to 0.
B. Replace the age field value for records with a value of 0 with the mean or median value from the dataset.
C. Drop the age feature from the dataset and train the model using the rest of the features.
D. Use k-means clustering to handle missing features.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
For the given confusion matrix, what is the recall and precision of the model?

Easyhometraining MLS-C01 exam questions-q2

A. Recall = 0.92 Precision = 0.84
B. Recall = 0.84 Precision = 0.8
C. Recall = 0.92 Precision = 0.8
D. Recall = 0.8 Precision = 0.92
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A large mobile network operating company is building a machine learning model to predict customers who are likely to
unsubscribe from the service. The company plans to offer an incentive for these customers as the cost of churn is far
greater than the cost of the incentive.
The model produces the following confusion matrix after evaluating on a test dataset of 100 customers:

Easyhometraining MLS-C01 exam questions-q3

Based on the model evaluation results, why is this a viable model for production?
A. The model is 86% accurate and the cost incurred by the company as a result of false negatives is less than the false
positives.
B. The precision of the model is 86%, which is less than the accuracy of the model.
C. The model is 86% accurate and the cost incurred by the company as a result of false positives is less than the false
negatives.
D. The precision of the model is 86%, which is greater than the accuracy of the model.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A city wants to monitor its air quality to address the consequences of air pollution A Machine Learning Specialist needs
to forecast the air quality in parts per million of contaminates for the next 2 days in the city As this is a prototype, only
daily data from the last year is available
Which model is MOST likely to provide the best results in Amazon SageMaker?
A. Use the Amazon SageMaker k-Nearest-Neighbors (kNN) algorithm on the single time series consisting of the full year
of data with a predictor_type of the regressor.
B. Use Amazon SageMaker Random Cut Forest (RCF) on the single time series consisting of the full year of data.
C. Use the Amazon SageMaker Linear Learner algorithm on the single time series consisting of the full year of data with
a predictor_type of the regressor.
D. Use the Amazon SageMaker Linear Learner algorithm on the single time series consisting of the full year of data with QUESTION 4
A city wants to monitor its air quality to address the consequences of air pollution A Machine Learning Specialist needs
to forecast the air quality in parts per million of contaminates for the next 2 days in the city As this is a prototype, only
daily data from the last year is available
Which model is MOST likely to provide the best results in Amazon SageMaker?
A. Use the Amazon SageMaker k-Nearest-Neighbors (kNN) algorithm on the single time series consisting of the full year
of data with a predictor_type of the regressor.
B. Use Amazon SageMaker Random Cut Forest (RCF) on the single time series consisting of the full year of data.
C. Use the Amazon SageMaker Linear Learner algorithm on the single time series consisting of the full year of data with
a predictor_type of the regressor.
D. Use the Amazon SageMaker Linear Learner algorithm on the single time series consisting of the full year of data with a predictor_type of the classifier.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/machine-learning/build-a-model-to-predict-the-impact-of-weather-on-urbanair-quality-using-amazon-sagemaker/?ref=Welcome.AI

QUESTION 5
A Machine Learning Specialist is building a logistic regression model that will predict whether or not a person will order a
pizza. The Specialist is trying to build the optimal model with an ideal classification threshold. What model evaluation
the technique should the Specialist use to understand how different classification thresholds will impact the model\\’s
performance?
A. Receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve
B. Misclassification rate
C. Root Mean Square Error (RMand)
D. L1 norm
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/machine-learning/latest/dg/binary-model-insights.html

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QUESTION 1
Organizers for a global event want to put daily reports online as static HTML pages The pages are expected to generate
millions of views from users around the world The files are stored in an Amazon S3 bucket A solutions architect has
been asked to design an efficient and effective solution Which action should the solutions architect take to accomplish
this?
A. Generate pre-signed URLs for the files
B. Use cross-Region replication to all Regions
C. Use the geo proximity feature of Amazon Route 53
D. Use Amazon CloudFront with the S3 bucket as its origin
Correct Answer: D
Using Amazon S3 Origins, MediaPackage Channels, and Custom Origins for Web Distributions
Using Amazon S3 Buckets for Your Origin
When you use Amazon S3 as an origin for your distribution, you place any objects that you want CloudFront to deliver in
an Amazon S3 bucket. You can use any method that is supported by Amazon S3 to get your objects into Amazon S3,
for
example, the Amazon S3 console or API, or a third-party tool. You can create a hierarchy in your bucket to store the
objects, just as you would with any other Amazon S3 bucket.
Using an existing Amazon S3 bucket as your CloudFront origin server doesn\\’t change the bucket in any way; you can
still use it as you normally would store and access Amazon S3 objects at the standard Amazon S3 price. You incur
regular Amazon S3 charges for storing the objects in the bucket.
Using Amazon S3 Buckets Configured as Website Endpoints for Your Origin
You can set up an Amazon S3 bucket that is configured as a website endpoint as the custom origin with CloudFront.
When you configure your CloudFront distribution, for the origin, enter the Amazon S3 static website hosting endpoint for
your bucket. This value appears in the Amazon S3 console, on the Properties tab, in the Static website hosting pane.
For
example: http://bucket-name.s3-website-region.amazonaws.com
For more information about specifying Amazon S3 static website endpoints, see Website endpoints in the Amazon
Simple Storage Service Developer Guide.
When you specify the bucket name in this format as your origin, you can use Amazon S3 redirects and Amazon S3
custom error documents. For more information about Amazon S3 features, see the Amazon S3 documentation.
Using an Amazon S3 bucket as your CloudFront origin server doesn\\’t change it in any way. You can still use it as you
normally would and you incur regular Amazon S3 charges.
Reference:
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudFront/latest/DeveloperGuide/DownloadDistS3AndCustomOrigins.html

QUESTION 2
A company is managing health records on-premises. The company must keep these records indefinitely, disable any
modifications to the records once they are stored, and granularly audit access at all levels. The chief technology officer
(CTO) is concerned because there are already millions of records not being used by any application, and the current
infrastructure is running out of space. The CTO has requested a solutions architect to design a solution to move existing
data and support future records.
Which services can the solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?
A. Use AWS DataSync to move existing data to AWS. Use Amazon S3 to store existing and new data Enable Amazon
S3 object lock and enable AWS CloudTrail with data events.
B. Use AWS Storage Gateway to move existing data to AWS Use Amazon S3 to store existing and new data. Enable
Amazon S3 object locks and enables AWS CloudTrail with management events.
C. Use AWS DataSync to move existing data to AWS Use Amazon S3 to store existing and new data Enable Amazon
S3 object locks and enables AWS CloudTrail with management events.
D. Use AWS Storage Gateway to move existing data to AWS Use Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) to store
existing and new data Enable Amazon S3 object lock and enable Amazon S3 server access logging
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A solutions architect is designing the storage architecture for a new web application used for storing and viewing
engineering drawings. All application components will be deployed on the AWS infrastructure. The application design
must
support caching to minimize the amount of time that users wait for the engineering drawings to load. The application
must be able to store petabytes of data.
Which combination of storage and caching should the solutions architect use?
A. Amazon S3 with Amazon CloudFront
B. Amazon S3 Glacier with Amazon ElastiCache
C. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes with Amazon CloudFront
D. AWS Storage Gateway with Amazon ElastiCache
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A company has 150 TB of archived image data stored on-premises that need to be mowed to the AWS Cloud within
the next month. The company\\’s current network connection allows up to 100 Mbps uploads for this purpose during the night only.
What is the MOST cost-effective mechanism to move this data and meet the migration deadline?
A. Use AWS Snowmobile to ship the data to AWS.
B. Order multiple AWS Snowball devices to ship the data to AWS.
C. Enable Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration and securely upload the data.
D. Create an Amazon S3 VPC endpoint and establish a VPN to upload the data.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
A company is reviewing its AWS Cloud deployment to ensure its data is not accessed by anyone without appropriate
authorization. A solutions architect is tasked with identifying all open Amazon S3 buckets and recording any S3 bucket
configuration changes.
What should the solutions architect do to accomplish this?
A. Enable AWS Config service with the appropriate rules
B. Enable AWS Trusted Advisor with the appropriate checks.
C. Write a script using an AWS SDK to generate a bucket report
D. Enable Amazon S3 server access logging and configure Amazon CloudWatch Events.
Correct Answer: A

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Amazon AWS Certified Specialty SCS-C01 exam effective practice questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is not a best practice for carrying out a security audit? Please select:
A. Conduct an audit on a yearly basis
B. Conduct an audit if application instances have been added to your account
C. Conduct an audit if you ever suspect that an unauthorized person might have accessed your account
D. Whenever there are changes in your organization
Correct Answer: A
A year\\’s time is generally too long a gap for conducting security audits
The AWS Documentation mentions the following
You should audit your security configuration in the following situations:
On a periodic basis.
If there are changes in your organization, such as people leaving.
If you have stopped using one or more individual AWS services. This is important for removing permissions that users in
your account no longer need.
If you\\’ve added or removed software in your accounts, such as applications on Amazon EC2 instances, AWS OpsWor
stacks, AWS CloudFormation templates, etc.
If you ever suspect that an unauthorized person might have accessed your account.
Option B, C and D are all the right ways and recommended best practices when it comes to conducting audits For more
information on Security Audit guideline, please visit the below URL:
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/eeneral/latest/gr/aws-security-audit-euide.html
The correct answer is: Conduct an audit on a yearly basis Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts

QUESTION 2
Your company has a hybrid environment, with on-premise servers and servers hosted in the AWS cloud. They are
planning to use the Systems Manager for patching servers. Which of the following is a pre-requisite for this to work;
Please select:
A. Ensure that the on-premise servers are running on Hyper-V.
B. Ensure that an 1AM service role is created
C. Ensure that an 1AM User is created
D. Ensure that an 1AM Group is created for the on-premise servers
Correct Answer: B
You need to ensure that an 1AM service role is created for allowing the on-premise servers to communicate with the
AWS Systems Manager. Option A is incorrect since it is not necessary that servers should only be running Hyper-V
Options C and D are incorrect since it is not necessary that 1AM users and groups are created For more information on
the Systems Manager role please refer to the below URL: com/systems-rnanaeer/latest/usereuide/sysman-! The correct
answer is: Ensure that an 1AM service role is created Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts

QUESTION 3
A Security Administrator is configuring an Amazon S3 bucket and must meet the following security requirements:
Encryption in transit Encryption at rest Logging of all object retrievals in AWS CloudTrail
Which of the following meet these security requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Specify “aws: SecureTransport”: “true” within a condition in the S3 bucket policy.
B. Enable a security group for the S3 bucket that allows port 443, but not port 80.
C. Set up default encryption for the S3 bucket.
D. Enable Amazon CloudWatch Logs for the AWS account.
E. Enable API logging of data events for all S3 objects.
F. Enable S3 object versioning for the S3 bucket.
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 4
A Development team has asked for help configuring the IAM roles and policies in a new AWS account. The team using
the account expects to have hundreds of master keys and therefore does not want to manage access control for
customer master keys (CMKs).
Which of the following will allow the team to manage AWS KMS permissions in IAM without the complexity of editing
individual key policies?
A. The account\\’s CMK key policy must allow the account\\’s IAM roles to perform KMS EnableKey.
B. Newly created CMKs must have a key policy that allows the root principal to perform all actions.
C. Newly created CMKs must allow the root principal to perform the KMS CreateGrant API operation.
D. Newly created CMKs must mirror the IAM policy of the KMS key administrator.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
During a security event, it is discovered that some Amazon EC2 instances have not been sending Amazon CloudWatch
logs.
Which steps can the Security Engineer take to troubleshoot this issue? (Select two.)
A. Connect to the EC2 instances that are not sending the appropriate logs and verify that the CloudWatch Logs agent is
running.
B. Log in to the AWS account and select CloudWatch Logs. Check for any monitored EC2 instances that are in the
“Alerting” state and restart them using the EC2 console.
C. Verify that the EC2 instances have a route to the public AWS API endpoints.
D. Connect to the EC2 instances that are not sending logs. Use the command prompt to verify that the right permissions
have been set for the Amazon SNS topic.
E. Verify that the network access control lists and security groups of the EC2 instances have the access to send logs
over SNMP.
Correct Answer: AB

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