Where do I get trusted Cisco exam for 300-115 dumps? The Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (300-115 SWITCH) exam is a 120 minutes (30-40 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP certification. Up to dated Cisco 300-115 dumps SWITCH exam question answers (pdf) study material – download free Youtube study. “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-115 exam. There are 300-115 dumps for which you can take more facilities for your Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH ) exam preparation. You can talk online with the professionals for clearing the concepts SWITCH https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-115.html dumps questions.

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300-115 dumps

Welcome to Pass4itsure Blog: Free Cisco 300-115 Dumps(57-90)

QUESTION 57
When a Layer 2 trunking EtherChannel is configured, which two attributes must match across the member ports? (Choose two)
A. Interface Description.
B. Spanning-tree cost.
C. spanning-tree priority
D. allowed VLANS
E. trunking mode.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 58
Based on the show spanning-tree vlan 200 output shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the STP process for VLAN 200 are true? (Choose two.)
300-115 dumps

A. BPDUs will be sent out every two seconds.
B. The time spent in the listening state will be 30 seconds.
C. The time spent in the learning state will be 15 seconds.
D. The maximum length of time that the BPDU information will be saved is 30 seconds.
E. This switch is the root bridgefor VLAN 200.
F. BPDUs will be sent out every 10 seconds.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 59
Which statement describes what happens if all VSL connections between the virtual switch members are lost?
A. Both virtualswitch members cease to forward traffic.
B. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and both virtual switch members continue to forward traffic independently.
C. The virtual switch members reload.
D. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and only the new active virtual switch continues to forward
traffic.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 60
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the accessswitch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination

Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 61
Which two statements about the HSRP priority are true? (Choose two)
A. To assign the HSRP router priority in a standby group, the standby group-number priority priority-value global configuration command must be used.
B. The default priority of a router is zero (0).
C. The no standby priority command assigns a priority of 100 to the router.
D. Assuming that preempting has also been configured, the router with the lowest priority in an HSRP group would become the active router.
E. When two routers in an HSRP standby group are configured with identical priorities, the router with the highest configured IP address will become the active router.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 62
After implementation of a drop out recovery program, employment rate rose. The drop out recovery program is responsible for increases in employment and look for possible economic or other factors that might have contributed to the rise. This example may be referred towards:
A. Post Hoc, Ergo Propter Hoc
B. Ad Hominem
C. Non Sequiter
D. False use of authority
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 63
For Example one exception in 1000 cases is probably not the reason enough to recommend overhauling the entire system, although the final answer must be derived from the context and the condition of the related control system. Which one of the following statements is clearly supported by this example?
A. Auditors should base findings and recommendations on significant information
B. Auditors should be aware of that the concept of materiality and significance take on different meanings in the public and private sectors

C. Both of these
D. None of these
300-115 vce 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 64
A manager of a very controversial program may have stolen only $200, but the controversy and public accountability aspects may make the 200 significant, where it would not be material private sector financial statement opinion audit. It means:
A. Auditors should be aware that the concepts of materiality and significance take on different meanings in the public and private sector
B. During the planning and reporting processes, government auditors may need to consider qualitative factors such as the visibility of the program under audit, or the newness of the program or changes in its condition
C. Both of these
D. None of these
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 65
Audit evidence:
A. Is sufficient when it is factual and would convince an informed person to reach the sameconclusion
B. Is competent if it consistently produces the same outcomes
C. Is relevant when it is directly related to audit comments, recommendations and conclusions
D. All of these

300-115 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 66
Data gathering and evaluation during field work includes:
A. Gaining and understanding of the activity, system, or process under review
B. Observing conditions and operations
C. Interviewing people and examining assets and accounting, and other operational business, and other operational records.
D. All of these
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 67
Compliance testing is designed primarily to:
A. Hold detection risk to an acceptable level
B. Determine whether policies and procedures have been followed
C. Determine that account balances exit, are accurate, and are properly classified
D. Provide evidence about monetary misstatements
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 68
Which one of the following is NOT an indicator of control weakness in derivatives?
A. Application of inappropriate valuation models
B. Management not involved
C. Evidence of a “Star Manager” syndrome
D. Absence of fiduciary mentality

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 69
Major categories of loans include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Commercial loans
B. Residential loans
C. Consumer loans
D. Agricultural loans
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 70
__________ allows businesses that sell durable goods such as auto-mobiles to finance inventories. As the business sells goods, the loan advance against those goods is repaid.
A. Term loans
B. Consumer loans
C. Installment loans
D. Floor-plan financing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 71
Common type/s of installment loans is/are:
A. Credit card loans
B. Residential loans
C. Mortgage loans
D. All of these
300-115 vce 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 72
Types of commercial loans are /are:
A. Installment loans
B. Floor plan financing
C. Asset-based financing
D. Both B and C
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 73
Management of the lending institution sets a reserve for loan losses at a given point based on such factors as mentioned below EXCEPT:
A. Number and type of loans made
B. Quality of loans made
C. Historical loss experience
D. Loan portfolio
300-115 exam
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 74
If more funds than expected are needed to cover loans losses in a given period, the reserve must be increased and the difference is charged to:
A. Administration expenses
B. Prepaid assets
C. Operating expenses
D. Loan expenses
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 75
When a loan becomes delinquent or when collection seems unlikely, banks often suspend:
A. Accrual of interest
B. Deferral of interest
C. Loan losses
D. Loan prepayments
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 76
If principal is paid on a loan after it has been placed on non-accrual status, the bank must determine whether it should record the payment as a reduction of:
A. The loan principal amount
B. Income interest
C. Both of these
D. Any one of these
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 77
Financial institutions regularly identify uncollectible accounts and charge them off against the reserve of:
A. Unearned loan revenue
B. Loan losses
C. Loan expenses
D. All of these
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 78
Watch lists of loans that are in danger of becoming delinquent generally contain information on such as:
A. Customers name and account information
B. Loan balance outstanding
C. Available collateral and its estimated value
D. All of these
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 79
Deposit accounts are:
A. Interest bearing accounts
B. Non-interest bearing accounts
C. Tax bearing accounts
D. Either A or B

300-115 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 80
Some small businesses keep funds in a savings account to gain interest on:
A. Fixed assets
B. Liquid assets
C. Loans
D. All of these
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 81
Which one of the following generally pays higher rates of interest than saving accounts?
A. Money market deposit accounts
B. Certificates of deposit
C. Term loans
D. Asset-based financing
300-115 exam
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 82
Interest rates offered on new CDs changes:
A. Daily at most banks
B. Twice a day at most banks
C. Weekly at most banks
D. Monthly at most banks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 83
Certificates of deposit may be:
A. Bearable or registered
B. Negotiable or non-negotiable
C. None of these
D. Both of these
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 84
Many businesses generally find CDs to be a:
A. Satisfactory money management approach
B. More than satisfactory money management approach
C. Less than satisfactory money management approach
D. Dissatisfactory money management approach
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 85
Non-interest bearing accounts including checking accounts and escrow accounts are known as:
A. Term deposit accounts
B. Demand deposit accounts

C. Fixed deposit accounts
D. Both A and C
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 86
Demand deposit account allows customers to transfer money through the use of:
A. Checks
B. ATMs and EFTs
C. Point of sale (POS) terminals
D. All of these
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 87
During the posting process of ledger records on deposit account banks may reject some transactions because:
A. They lack proper endorsements
B. They are subject to stop payments
C. They would create an over draft
D. All of these
300-115 vce 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 88
Which one of the following audit objectives and steps should not be considered when performing an audit of deposit account?
A. Determine whether dormant accounts are closed in a timely manner and in accordance with policies
B. Determine whether there are adequate controls to prevent unauthorized access and change to customer accounts
C. Determine whether applicable fees and penalties are properly assessed and posted
D. None of these
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 89
Trust departments provide services to publicly held companies related to issuing and maintaining:
A. Stock transactions
B. Stock balances
C. Stock threshold
D. None off these
300-115 exam
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 90
Funds held in trust cannot be reinvented in:
A. Term deposits
B. Savings accounts
C. Financial institution’s own securities
D. Floor-plan financing
Correct Answer: C

 

300-115 dumps

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300-115 dumps

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