[Updated August 2017 From Google Drive] 100% Passing Guarantee Microsoft 70-417 Dumps Exam Latest Questions for Windows Video Series Is What You Need To Take

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Exam Code: 70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Updated: Aug 13, 2017
Q&As: 427

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The actual dumps of Microsoft 70-417 has some additional material for better preparation of 70-417 dumps MCSE exam which is not available in demo.

70-417 dumps

DEMO
QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain
controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

70-417 dumps

DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware failure.
You plan to remove DC3 from the domain.
You log on to DC3.
You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3.
What should you do?
A. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
B. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
C. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
D. Run dcdiag /test:dns.
70-417 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Your network contains a Hyper-V host named Server1 that hosts 20 virtual machines.
You need to view the amount of memory resources and processor resources each virtual machine uses
currently.
Which tool should you use on Server1?
A. Resource Monitor
B. Task Manager
C. Hyper-V Manager
D. Windows System Resource Manager (WSRM)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server
role installed.
The disks on Server1 are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

70-417 dumps

You create a virtual machine on Server1.
You need to ensure that you can configure a pass-through disk for the virtual machine.
What should you do?
A. Convert Disk 1 to a GPT disk.
B. Convert Disk 1 to a dynamic disk.
C. Delete partition E.
D. Take Disk 1 offline.
70-417 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The Active Directory Recycle bin
is enabled for contoso.com.
A support technician accidentally deletes a user account named User1.
You need to restore the User1 account.
Which tool should you use?
A. Ldp
B. Esentutl

C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Ntdsutil
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers
named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All servers have the
Hyper-V server role and the Failover Clustering feature installed.
The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

70-417 dumps

You need to replicate virtual machines from Cluster1 to Cluster2.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose three.)
A. From Hyper-V Manager on a node in Cluster2, create three virtual machines.
B. From Cluster2, add and configure the Hyper-V Replica Broker role.
C. From Failover Cluster Manager on Cluster1, configure each virtual machine for replication.
D. From Cluster1, add and configure the Hyper-V Replica Broker role.
E. From Hyper-V Manager on a node in Cluster2/ modify the Hyper-V settings.
70-417 pdf
 Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 is an enterprise root certification authority (CA) for contoso.com.
Your user account is assigned the certificate manager role and the auditor role on the contoso.com CA.
Your account is a member of the local Administrators group on Server1.
You enable CA role separation on Server1.
You need to ensure that you can manage the certificates on the CA.
What should you do?
A. Remove your user account from the local Administrators group.
B. Assign the CA administrator role to your user account.
C. Assign your user account the Bypass traverse checking user right.
D. Remove your user account from the Manage auditing and security log user right.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain.
The forest contains two Active Directory sites named Site1 and Site2.
You plan to deploy a read-only domain controller (RODC) named DC10 to Site2. You pre-create the DC10
domain controller account by using Active Directory Users and Computers.

You need to identify which domain controller will be used for initial replication during the promotion of the
RODC.
Which tab should you use to identify the domain controller?
To answer, select the appropriate tab in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-417 dumps

Hot Area:
70-417 dumps

70-417 vce Correct Answer:
70-417 dumps

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four member
servers named Server 1, Server2, Server3, and Server4. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 are located in a site named Site1. Server3 and Server4 are located in a site named
Site2. The servers are configured as nodes in a failover cluster named Cluster1.
Cluster1 is configured to use the Node Majority quorum configuration.
You need to ensure that Server1 is the only server in Site1 that can vote to maintain quorum.
What should you run from Windows PowerShell?
To answer, drag the appropriate commands to the correct location. Each command may be used once,

more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-417 dumps

Correct Answer:
 70-417 dumps

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
Your network contains four servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.

Each server has the Failover Clustering feature installed. Each server has three network adapters
installed. An iSCSI SAN is available on the network.
You create a failover cluster named Cluster1. You add the servers to the cluster.
You plan to configure the network settings of each server node as shown in the following table.

70-417 dumps

You need to configure the network settings for Cluster1.
What should you do?
To answer, drag the appropriate network communication setting to the correct cluster network or networks.
Each network communication setting may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to
drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
 70-417 dumps

70-417 exam Correct Answer:
70-417 dumps

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
Recently, all of the domain controllers that ran Windows Server 2003 were replaced by domain controllers
that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
From Event Viewer, you discover SYSVOL journal wrap errors on a domain controller named
dc10.contoso.com.
You need to perform a non-authoritative synchronization of SYSVOL on DC10.
Which three actions should you perform on DC10?
To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange
them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

70-417 dumps

Select and Place:
70-417 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-417 dumps

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
Your network contains a RADIUS server named Admin1.
You install a new server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has Network Policy
Server (NPS) installed.
You need to ensure that all accounting requests for Server2 are forwarded to Admin1.
On Server2, you create a new remote RADIUS server group named Group1 that contains Admin1.
What should you configure next on Server2?
To answer, select the appropriate node in the answer area.
Hot Area:

 70-417 dumps

 70-417 dumps

70-417 dumps Correct Answer:
70-417 dumps

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three
servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

70-417 dumps

Server1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

70-417 dumps

Template1 contains custom cryptography settings that are required by the corporate security team.
On Server2, an administrator successfully installs a certificate based on Template1.
The administrator reports that Template1 is not listed in the Certificate Enrollment wizard on Server3, even
after selecting the Show all templates check box.
You need to ensure that you can install a server authentication certificate on Server3. The certificate must
comply with the cryptography requirements.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence?
To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange
them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-417 dumps

Select and Place:
70-417 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-417 dumps

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server
named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You create a user account named User1 in the
domain.
You need to ensure that User1 can use Windows Server Backup to back up Server1.
The solution must minimize the number of administrative rights assigned to User1.
What should you do?
A. Assign User1 the Back up files and directories user right.
B. Add User1 to the Backup Operators group.
C. Add User1 to the Power Users group.
D. Assign User1 the Back up files and directories user right and the Restore files and directories user
right.
70-417 pdf
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two sites named
Main and Branch. The Main site contains 400 desktop computers and the Branch site contains 150
desktop computers. All of the desktop computers run Windows 8.
In Main, the network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. You
install the Windows Server Update Services server role on Server1.

You need to ensure that Windows updates obtained from Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) are
the same for the computers in each site.
You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. From the Update Services console, create computer groups
B. From the Update Services console, configure the Computers options
C. From the Group Policy Management console, configure the Windows Update settings
D. From the Group Policy Management console, configure the Windows Anytime Upgrade settings
E. From the Update Services console, configure the Synchronization Schedule options
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Your network contains three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3. All servers run Windows
Server 2012 R2.
You need to ensure that Server1 can provide iSCSI storage for Server2 and Server3. What should you do
on Server1?
A. Install the iSCSI Target Server role service and configure iSCSI targets
B. Start the Microsoft iSCSI Initiator Service and configure the iSCSI Initiator Properties
C. Install the iSNS Server service feature and create a Discovery Domain
D. Install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature and configure the MPIO Properties
70-417 vce
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 210-255
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
Updated: Aug 04, 2017
Q&As: 65

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210-255 dumps

QUESTION: 16
During the cool-down phase of an exercise session, clients should be encouraged to
A. Rehydrate.
B. Decrease the intensity of activity quickly to decrease cardiac afterload.
C. Limit the cool-down period to 5 minutes.
D. Increase the number of isometric activities.
210-255 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 17
Muscular endurance training is best accomplished by
A. Performing four to six repetitions per set.
B. Using high resistance.
C. Incorporating high repetitions.
D. Performing isometric exercises only.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 18
Transitional care exercise and rehabilitation programs are NOT appropriate for
A. Clients with functionally limiting chronicdisease.
B. Clients with comorbid disease states.
C. Asymptomatic clients with a functional capacity of 10 MET.

D. Clients at 1 week after CABG surgery.
210-255 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 19
Many clients have WI-mode programmed pacemakers. Which of the following is TRUE
regarding exercise programming with WI pacemakers?
A. Persons with WI pacemakers may be chronotropically (HR) competent with exercise
but require longer warm-up and gradual increase in intensity during the initial exercise
portion of their session.
B. Persons who are chronotropically competent are tachycardic at rest and should not
exercise at low intensities.
C. BP response is not a good marker of intensity effort in those with WI pacemakers and
need not be evaluated during an exercise session.
D. Persons with WI pacemakers must avoid exercise on the bicycle ergometer because of
the location of the ventricular lead wire and potential for displacement.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 20
Controlling pool water temperature (83-88°F), avoiding jarring and weight- bearing
activities, and avoiding movement in swollen, inflamed joints are special considerations
for exercise in
A. Clients after atherectomy.
B. Clients with angina.
C. Clients with osteoporosis.
D. Clients with arthritis.
210-255 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 21
Which of the following is a resistive lung disease?
A. Asthma.
B. Tuberculosis.

C. Cystic fibrosis.
D. Emphysema.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 22
A specific benefit of regular exercise for patients with angina is
A. Improved ischemic threshold at which angina symptoms occur.
B. Increased myocardial oxygen demand at the same submaximallevels.
C. Eradication of all symptoms.
D. Elevation of BP.
210-255 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 23
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of increased flexibility?
A. Increased muscle viscosity, allowing easier and smoother contractions.
B. Reduced muscle tension and increased relaxation.
C. Improved coordination by allowing greater ease of movement.
D. Increased ROM.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 24
Which of the following statements regarding warm-up is FALSE?
A. Muscle blood flow is increased as a result of warm-up.
B. Peripheral vasodilation occurs as a result of warm-up.
C. Peripheral vasoconstriction occurs as a result of warm-up.
D. Between 5 and 10 minutes should be allotted for a warm-up period.
210-255 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 25
Which of the following statements regarding cooldown is FALSE?
A. The emphasis should be large muscle activity performed at a low to moderate
intensity.
B. Increasing venous return should be a priority during cool-down.
C. The potential for improving flexibility may be improved during cool-down as
compared with warm-up.
D. Between 1 and 2 minutes are recommended for an adequate cool-down.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 26
All of the following are examples of aerobic exercise modalities EXCEPT
A. Weight training.
B. Walking.
C. Bicycling.
D. Stair climbing.
210-255 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 27
A target HR equivalent to 85% of HRR for a 25year-old male with a resting HR of 75
bpm would be equal to
A. 195 bpm.
B. 166 bpm.
C. 177 bpm.
D. 102 bpm.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 28
The appropriate exercise HR for an individual on f3-blocking medication would generally
be

A. 75% of HRR.
B. 30 bpm above the standing resting HR.
C. 40% of HRR.
D. (220 – age) X 0.85.
210-255 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 29
The recommended cardiorespiratory exercise training goal for apparently healthy
individuals should be
A. 15 minutes, six times per week, at 90% of HRR.
B. 30 minutes, three times per week, at 85% of HRR.
C. 60 minutes, three times per week, at 85% of HRR.
D. 30 minutes of weight training, three times per week, at 60% of HRR.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 30
In an effort to improve flexibility, the ACSM recommends
A. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation.
B. Ballistic stretching.
C. The plough and hurdler’s stretches.
D. Static stretches held for 10 to 30 seconds per repetition.
210-255 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 31
An appropriate exercise for improving the strength of the low back muscles are
A. Straight leg lifts.
B. Parallel squats.
C. Spinal extension exercises.
D. Sit-ups with feet anchored.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 32
Which of the following statements true regarding exercise leadership is FALSE?
A. The exercise leader should be fit enough to exercise with any of his or her participants.
B. Most people are not bored by exercise and can easily find time to participate in an
exercise program.
C. The exercise leader should adjust the exercise intensity based on individual differences
in fitness.
D. Periodic fitness assessment may provide evidence of improvement in fitness for some
participants.
210-255 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 33
Which of the following statements regarding exercise for the elderly is FALSE?
A. A decrease in maximal HR is responsible for reductions in the maximal oxygen
consumption as we age.
B. A loss of fat-free mass is responsible for the decrease in muscular strength as we age.
C. The ACSM recommends a cardiorespiratory training intensity of 50% to 70% of HRR
for older adults.
D. Resistance exercise training is not recommended for older adults.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 34
Which of the following medications have been shown to be most effective in preventing
or reversing exercise-induced asthma?
A. f3 -Agonists.
2
B. f3-Blockers.
C. Diuretics.
D. Aspirin.

210-255 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
The exercise leader or health/fitness instructor should modify exercise sessions for
participants with hypertension by
A. Shortening the cool-down to less than 5 minutes.
B. Eliminating resistance training completely.
C. Prolonging the cool-down.
D. Implementing high-intensity (>85% of HRR), short-duration intervals.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 36
Normal values for fasting blood sugar are
A. Greater than 140 mg/dL.
B. Between 60 and 140 mg/dL.
C. Less than 60 mg/dL.
D. Between 200 and 400 mg/dL.
210-255 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 37
The goal for the obese exercise participant should be to
A. Sweat as much as possible.
B. Exercise at 85% of HRR.
C. Perform resistance exercise three to five times per week.
D. Expend 300 to 500 calories per exercise session.
Answer: D

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[Updated August 2017 From Google Drive] Microsoft Training Resources for Helpful Windows Server 2012 070-410 Dumps with Assurance To Pass 070-410 Exam Certification on SlideShare

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Exam Code: 070-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Aug 06, 2017
Q&As: 503

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QUESTION: 1
Press the Exhibit button to view “XML Schema Document”. Select which of the following
correctly describes a valid XML document with respect to “XML Schema Document”.
A. <ContactInformation Date=”2004-07-31″>
<Name>Taro Yamada</Name>
<eMail>Yamada@ABC.co.jp</eMail>
</ContactInformation>
B. <ContactInformation>
<Name/>
<eMail/>
</ContactInformation>
C. <ContactInformation Date=”July 31, 2004″>
<Name>Taro Yamada</Name>
<eMail>Yamada@ABC.co.jp</eMail>
</ContactInformation>
D. <ContactInformation/>W Courier Newlr Z
070-410 exam 
Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 2
Press the Exhibit button to view “XML Document”. Select which of the following correctly
describes the results of applying “XSLT Stylesheet” to “XML Document”. Assume that the
input XML document and transformation results ignore meaningless whitespace.
A. A file that does not contain any content will be output, because the XML document LIST
element does not contain a name attribute.
B. The following XML document will be output.
<?xml version=”1.0″?>
<LIST>PenPaper</LIST>
C. The following XML document will be output.
<?xml version=”1.0″?>
<LIST>
<name lang=”jp”>Pen</name>
<name lang=”jp”>Paper</name>
</LIST>
D. The following XML document will be output.
<?xml version=”1.0″?>
<LIST>
<name lang=”jp”>Pen</name>
<name lang=”jp”>Paper</name>
PenPaper
</LIST>W Courier Newlr Z

Answer: B
QUESTION: 3
Select which of the following correctly describes an XML Schema definition when the
Market Price element must be a positive integer. Assume the Schema namespace prefix is
“xs”.
A. <xs:element name=”MarketPrice” type=”xs:negativeInteger”/>
B. <xs:element name=”MarketPrice” type=”xs:positiveInteger”/>
C. <xs:element name=”MarketPrice” type=”xs:duration”/>
D. <xs:element name=”MarketPrice” type=”xs:hexBinary”/>W Courier Newlr Z
070-410 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 4
Select which of the following correctly describes (1) and (2) in the XML Schema document
below when the content of the “Flag” element must be an integer of 0 or 1.
<?xml version=”1. 0″?>
<xs:schema xmlns:xs=”http://www. w3. org/2001/XMLSchema”>
<xs:element name=”Flag” type=”flagData”/>
<xs:simpleType name=”flagData”>
<xs:restriction base=”xs:integer”>
<(1) value=”0″/>
<(2) value=”1″/>
</xs:restriction>
</xs:simpleType>
</xs:schema>
A. (1) xs:minInclusive (2) xs:maxInclusive
B. (1) xs:enumeration (2) xs:enumeration C.
(1) xs:minOccurs (2) xs:maxOccurs
D. (1) xs:minExclusive (2) xs:maxExclusiveW Courier Newlr Z
Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 5
Select which statement correctly describes the XML document below.
[XML Documents]
<!DOCTYPE ElementA [
<!ELEMENT ElementA EMPTY>
<!ATTLIST ElementA Attribute (ABC|DEF|GHI) #IMPLIED>
]>

<ElementA Attribute =” A
B C”/>
A. This is not a well-formed document, because the attribute value cannot have a line feed in
it.
B. This is not a valid XML document, because an attribute cannot be designated for an
element that is designated as EMPTY.
C. This is not a valid XML document, because the attribute value is not a value listed in the
attribute list declaration.
D. This is a valid XML document. W Courier Newlr Z
070-410 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION: 6
Select which of the following correctly describes a namespace to which the “price” element
in the XML document below belongs.
<message xmlns=”urn:sample:order”
xmlns:product=”urn:sample:product”>
<product:list xmlns=”urn:sample:list”>
<name>XML study guide</name>
<price>536</price>
</product:list>
<order>
<customerID>J058974</customerID>
<number>1</number>
</order>
</message>
A. urn:sample:order
B. urn:sample:product
C. urn:sample:list
D. Does not belong to any namespace. W Courier Newlr Z
Answer: C
QUESTION: 7
Select which of the following is coded using XML syntax:
A. XHTML documents
B. SOAP headers
C. XSLT Stylesheets
D. DOMW Courier Newlr Z

070-410 vce Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 8
Select which of the following correctly describes an element type declaration that includes
either the “home” element or the “mobile” element as a child element of the
“telephone_number” element.
A. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home,mobile)>
B. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home?mobile)>
C. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home)>
<!ELEMENT telephone_number (mobile)>
D. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home|mobile)>W Courier Newlr Z
Answer: D
QUESTION: 9
Select which statement is correct with regards to creating an XML document based on the
DTD
element type declaration below.
[element type declaration]
<!ELEMENT computer (notebook|server)*>
<!ELEMENT notebook (mouse*)>
<!ELEMENT mouse (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT server (#PCDATA)>
A. Both the “notebook” element and the “server” element can be written as a child element
of the computer element.
B. As a child element of the “computer” element, the “server” element can be written before
the
“notebook” element.
C. When writing the “notebook” element, “mouse” must be written as a child element.
D. Only one “mouse” element can be written as a child element of the “notebook” element.
W Courier Newlr Z
070-410 exam 
Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 10
Select which DTD element type declaration correctly defines the “XML Documents”
structure below.
[XML Documents]

<Documents>
<Product_Name>black pen</Product_Name>
+
<Product_Name> red pencil </Product_Name>
=
<Price>100</Price>
yen.
</Documents>
A. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name|Price)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
B. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name|Price|#PCDATA)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
C. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name*|Price)>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
D. <!ELEMENT Documents (#PCDATA|Product_Name|Price)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)> W Courier Newlr Z
Answer: D
QUESTION: 11
Select which of the following is correct with respect to the attribute list declaration for
setting “notebook” as the default value in the CDATA “type” attribute included in the
“computer” element.
A. <!ATTLIST type CDATA “notebook”>
B. <!ATTLIST computer type CDATA notebook>
C. <!ATTLIST computer type CDATA “notebook”>
D. <!ATTLIST computer type=”notebook” CDATA>W Courier Newlr Z
070-410 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION: 12
Select which of the following correctly describes the DTD attribute list declaration when the
“date” attribute and the “reception” attribute are included in the “Customer_Visit” element.
A. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit (date,reception) CDATA #IMPLIED>
B. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit (date|reception) CDATA #IMPLIED>

C. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit date && reception CDATA #IMPLIED>
D. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit date CDATA #IMPLIED reception CDATA #IMPLIED>W
Courier Newlr Z
Answer: D
QUESTION: 13
Select which of the following correctly describes a document type declaration when
designating an external DTD file.
A. <!ENTITY productlist SYSTEM “product. dtd”>
B. <!DOCTYPE productlist SYSTEM “product. dtd”>
C. <!DOCTYPE root [
<!ELEMENT productlist SYSTEM “product. dtd”>]>
D. <!DTD productlist SYSTEM “product. dtd”>W Courier Newlr Z
070-410 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 14
Choose the statement about a problem with DTDs that is incorrect.
A. The way statements are made in a DTD differs from how the same statements are made in
XML. As a result, different algorithms must be made available for the XML processor to
interpret XML documents, which is inefficient.
B. Any single DTD can only be used to validate a single XML document.
C. In a DTD, it is not possible to specify any explicit numerical data type.
D. DTDs fail to comply with the rules of namespaces. W Courier Newlr Z
Answer: B
QUESTION: 15
Select which answers are correct with respect to the relationship between “x”, as expressed
in the DTD element type declaration below, and its child element. Assume child elements
“a” “b” “c” are all empty elements,
expressed as like <a/>.
[DTD]
<!ELEMENT x (a, (b|c)*)>
A. <x>
<a/>

<b/>
<c/>
</x>
B. <x>
<a/>
</x>
C. <x>
<a/>
<c/>
<c/>
<b/>
</x>
D. <x>
<b/>
<c/>
<a/>
</x>W Courier Newlr Z
070-410 vce 
Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 16
Select which of the following correctly describes the XML namespace to which the –>(1)
“product” element in the “XML Document” below belongs.
[XML Documents]
<?xml version=”1. 0″?>
<products xmlns:A=”urn:sample:A”
xmlns:B=”urn:sample:B”>
<A:product>
<B:product>
<product/> –>(1)
</B:product>
</A:product>
</products>
A. urn:sample:A
B. urn:sample:B
C. urn:sample:A and urn:sample:B
D. NoneW Courier Newlr Z
070-410 exam 
Answer: D

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[Updated August 2017 From Google Drive] New Exam Material for the Free Updated Microsoft 70-773 PDF Dumps Instant Download Guaranteed Success

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Exam Code: 70-773
Exam Name: Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R (beta)
Updated: Jul 29, 2017
Q&As: 102

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70-773

1.Which statement is true about digital signals as a receiver moves further away from
the transmitter?
A. The gain is higher.
B. The amplitude is lower.
C. The amplitude is higher.
D. The delay spread increases.
70-773 pdf Answer: B
2.Why should you use more than one antenna on an Access Point? (Choose two.)
A. The coverage area is larger.
B. An Access Point cannot operate with only one antenna.
C. Null zones within the coverage area are reduced or eliminated.
D. Reception is better if the transmitter is at the edge of the range.
Answer: CD
3.Which type is ambient RF background noise?
A. wideband
B. sideband
C. edgeband
D. narrowband
70-773 exam Answer: A
4.What are antennas that radiate a toroid-shaped pattern?
A. broadband
B. directional
C. omni-directional
D. multi-directional
Answer: C
5.What is multipathing?
A. radio signals being reflected, refracted, and absorbed
B. a method used by wireless Access Points to correctly route traffic
C. a part of the design process used to determine Access Point location
D. a method used by mobile units to determine the best Access Point to associate with
70-773 dumps Answer: A
6.What is FHSS?
A. Full Heterodyne Spread Spectrum

B. Frequency Hash Streaming System
C. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
D. Function Harmonics Spread Sequence
Answer: C
7.Which two are characteristics of narrow band RF transmissions? (Choose two.)
A. require smaller antenna radiators
B. have an inherent high level of diversity
C. occupy less RF space than wideband RF transmissions
D. are more susceptible to interference than wideband RF transmissions
70-773 vce Answer: CD
8.What is DSSS?
A. Digital Signal Stream System
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
C. Doppler Sending Spread Spectrum
D. Designated System Spread Spectrum
Answer: B
9.Which type of network should you use for wireless communication between a
workstation and its peripherals?
A. Wide Area Network (WAN)
B. Local Area Network (LAN)
C. Personal Area Network (PAN)
D. Satellite Area Network (SAN)
70-773 pdf Answer: C
10.What is the width of a single channel used by FHSS systems?
A. 1 MHz
B. 2 MHz
C. 11 MHz
D. 22 MHz
Answer: A

11.Working with a retailer on a site survey, they ask if there’s any way to get more of the aisle and less of the
shelves on the short sides in the shot. An AXIS M3204 camera is being used. Which would be the best
suggestion to the retailer?
A. Adjusting the varifocal lens from 2.8 mm to 10 mm
B. Adjusting the varifocal lens from 2.8 mm to 4 mm

C. Using Axis’ Corridor Format
D. Switching the camera to a 16:9 view
70-773 vce 
Correct Answer: C
12.The capability to view and record up to four different areas of the whole image of an AXIS P1346 is called
A. Multicast streaming.
B. Multi-view streaming.
C. Broadcast streaming.
D. Multi-link streaming.
Correct Answer: B
13.What is the appropriate usage for an Axis thermal camera?
A. Identifying people in complete darkness
B. Detecting motion only at nighttime
C. Measuring exact temperatures in daytime
D. Detecting activity in daylight and complete darkness
70-773 exam 
Correct Answer: D
14.Increase of bandwidth and storage can be a result of (Choose two)
A. Changing from Motion JPEG to H.264.
B. Arctic Temperature Control.
C. High noise level.
D. The use of High PoE.
E. Image resolution.
Correct Answer: CE
15.A camera lens with a low f-stop value of 1.2 will outperform a lens with a higher f- stop value due to which
one of the parameters below?
A. Better depth of field
B. Better low light capability
C. Improved sharpness
D. Less image artifacts
70-773 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
16. A customer wants his video surveillance system to completely cover the perimeter of his property. For the
installer to ensure that the camera system is not subject to sabotage, he should
A. Install more low-priced cameras to cover the complete site.
B. Make sure each camera is seen by at least one other camera.
C. Use PoE, and not a PoE splitter.
D. Install thermal cameras.
Correct Answer: B

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[Updated August 2017 From Google Drive] Get 100% Accurate TSHOOT CCNP 300-135 Dumps PDF Files for Cisco Online Exams 300-135 PDF Guide & Preparation on SlideShare

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Jul 29, 2017
Q&As: 118

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300-135

QUESTION 1
When discovering a medication error, the nurse’s FIRST action is to?
A. Call the nurse supervisor
B. Call the physician
C. Fill out a medication error reporting form
D. Assess the patient’s condition
300-135 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
While preparing for a kidney biopsy the nurse should position the patient:
A. Prone with a sandbag under the abdomen
B. Lateral opposite to biopsy site
C. Supine in bed with knee flexion
D. Lateral flexed knee-chest
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
A patient with a central venous line develops sudden clinical manifestations that include a decrease in
blood pressure, an elevated heart rate, cyanosis, tachypnea, and changes in mental status. Which of the
following is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
A. An air embolism
B. Circulatory overload
C. Venous thrombosis
D. Developing bacteremia
300-135 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Order: 1000 ml of D5W to run for 12 hours. Using a micro drip set calculate the drops per minute (gtts/
min):
A. 20 gtts/min
B. 45 gtts/min
C. 60 gtts/min
D. 83 gtts/min
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
A patient voided a urine specimen at 9:00 AM. The specimen should be sent to the laboratory before:
A. 9:30 AM
B. 10:00 AM
C. 10:30 AM
D. 11:00 AM
300-135 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
An 84-year-old man has arthritis and is admitted for a severely edematous knee. The physician orders
heat packs every 2 hours and you feel this order may worsen the tissue congestion. An appropriate

nursing action would be:
A. Contact the physician and discuss your concerns about the order
B. To include the order in the nursing care plan and monitor outcome
C. Complete an incident report form and document concerns in the nursing notes
D. Involve the patient by asking what his treatment preference is
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
The minimal amount of urine that a post-operative patient weighing 60 kgs should pass is?
A. 120 ml/hr
B. 90 ml/hr
C. 60 ml/hr
D. 30 ml/hr
300-135 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
When caring for a patient with impaired mobility that occurred as a result of a stroke (right sided arm and
leg weakness). The nurse would suggest that the patient use which of the following assistive devices that
would provide the best stability for ambulating?
A. Crutches
B. Single straight-legged cane
C. Quad cane
D. Walker
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
While assessing a patient, the nurse learns that he has a history of allergic rhinitis, asthma, and multiple
food allergies. The nurse must:
A. Be alert to hypersensitivity response to the prescribed medications
B. Encourages the patient to carry an epinephrine kit in case of an allergic reaction
C. Advise the patient to use aspirin in case of febrile illnesses
D. Admit the patient to a single room with limited exposure to health care personnel
300-135 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
A patient who has just had a miscarriage at 8 weeks of gestation is admitted to hospital. In caring for this
patient, the nurse should be alert for signs of:
A. Dehydration
B. Subinvolution
C. Hemorrhage
D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
The nurse should observe for which of the following symptoms in a patient who has just undergone a total
thyroidectomy:
A. Weight gain

B. Depressed reflexes
C. Muscle spasm and twitching
D. Irritable behavior
300-135 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
A patient is ordered 75mg of pethidine which comes in an ampoule of 100mg/2ml. What would the nurse
do with the remaining pethidine after drawing up the required dose?
A. Lock up the remaining dose in the medication cupboard to use later
B. Ask a fellow staff nurse to witness the disposal of the remaining drug
C. Use the remaining dose within 2 hours for another patient
D. Pour the remaining dose down the nearest sink
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
A patient is to receive 50mL of fluid in 1/2 hour (30 min). The infusion pump should be set to deliver how
many milliters per hour?
A. 25 ml/hr
B. 50 ml/hr
C. 75 ml/hr
D. 100 ml/hr
300-135 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
A male patient with a right pleural effusion noted on a chest X-ray is being prepared for thoracentesis. The
patient experiences severe dizziness when sitting upright. To provide a safe environment, the nurse
assists the patient to which position for the procedure?
A. Prone with head turned toward the side supported by a pillow
B. Sims’ position with the head of the bed flat
C. Right side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees
D. Left side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
After application of a cast in the upper extremity, the patient complains of severe pain in the affected site.
Which of the following would the nurse initiate?
A. Administer analgesics as ordered
B. Assess neurovascular status
C. Notify his physician
D. Pad the edges of the cast
300-135 vce 
Correct Answer: B

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[Updated July 2017] Actual Exam Preparation for Useful Oracle Certified Expert 1Z0-068 Dumps Study Guide with Accurate Answers

We are the fastest to pursue acquiring 1z0-068 dumps online certification; we are the highest to pursue protecting your benefits. Our Pass4itsure ensures the accuracy and the most coverage of Oracle https://www.pass4itsure.com/1z0-068.html dumps. If you purchase 1z0-068 dumps, we will ensure that you can get free update service in one year.

Exam Code: 1Z0-068
Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: RAC and Grid Infrastructure Administration
Updated: Jul 05, 2017
Q&As: 157

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QUESTION NO: 16
If cases are worked on a lab drive in a secure room, without any cleaning of the contents of the
drive, which of the following areas would be of most concern?
A. Storage
B. There is no concern
C. Chain-of-custody
D. Cross-contamination
1Z0-068  dumps Answer: D

 
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following would most likely be an add-in card?
A. Anything plugged into socket 7
B. A motherboard
C. A video card that is connected to the motherboard in the AGP slot
D. The board that connects to the power supply
Answer: C

 
QUESTION NO: 18
Which of the following would be a true statement about the function of the BIOS?
A. The BIOS is responsible for checking and configuring the system after the power is turned on. B. Botha and c.
C. The BIOS is responsible for swapping out memory pages when RAM fills up.
D. The BIOS integrates compressed executable files with memory addresses for faster execution.
1Z0-068  exam Answer: A

 
QUESTION NO: 19
When an EnCase user double-clicks on a valid .jpg file, that file is:
A. Renamed to JPG_0001.jpg and copied to the default export folder.
B. Copied to the default export folder and opened by an associated program.
C. Opened by EnCase.
D. Copied to the EnCase specified temp folder and opened by an associated program.
Answer: D

 

 
QUESTION NO: 20
RAM is an acronym for:
A. Random Addressable Memory
B. Relative Addressable Memory
C. Relative Address Memory
D. Random Access Memory
1Z0-068  pdf Answer: D

 

 
QUESTION NO: 21
The results of a hash analysis on an evidence file that has been added to a case will be stored in
which of the following files?
A. The evidence file
B. The case file
C. The configuration HashAnalysis.ini file
D. All of the above
Answer: B

 
QUESTION NO: 22
The EnCase default export folder is:
A. A global setting that cannot be changed.
B. A case-specific setting that can be changed.
C. A global setting that can be changed.
D. A case-specific setting that cannot be changed.
1Z0-068  vce Answer: B

 

 
QUESTION NO: 23
What are the EnCase configuration .ini files used for?
A. Storing information that will be available to EnCase each time it is opened, regardless of the
active case(s).
B. Storing the results of a signature analysis.
C. Storing pointers to acquired evidence.
D. Storing information that is specific to a particular case.
Answer: A

 

 
QUESTION NO: 24
A CPU is:
A. A chip that would be considered the brain of a computer, which is installed on a motherboard.
B. A Central Programming Unit.
C. An entire computer box, not including the monitor and other attached peripheral devices.
D. A motherboard with all required devices connected.
1Z0-068  dumps Answer: A

 

 
QUESTION NO: 25
A case file can contain hard drive images?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. any number of
Answer: D

 

 

 

QUESTION NO: 26 CORRECT TEXT

A standard DOS 6.22 boot disk is acceptable for booting a suspect drive.

Answer: True

Answer: False

1Z0-068  exam Answer: Pending

 

 

 

QUESTION NO: 27 CORRECT TEXT

The temporary folder of a case cannot be changed once it has been set.

Answer: True

Answer: False

Answer: Pending

 

 

 

 

QUESTION NO: 28

In Unicode, one printed character is composed of

  1. 1
  2. 8
  3. 4
  4. 2

Answer: D

 

QUESTION NO: 29

The signature table data is found in which of the following files?

  1. The case file
  2. All of the above
  3. The configuration FileSignatures.ini file
  4. The evidence file

Answer: C

 

 

 

QUESTION NO: 30
What does the acronym BIOS stand for?
A. Basic Integrated Operating System
B. Basic Input/Output System
C. Binary Input/Output System
D. Binary Integrated Operating System
Answer: B

 
QUESTION NO: 31
In the EnCase environment, the term xternal viewers?is best described as: In the EnCase
environment, the term ?xternal viewers?is best described as:
A. Programs that are exported out of an evidence file.
B. Programsthat are associated with EnCase to open specific file types.
C. Any program that will work with EnCase.
D. Any program that is loaded on the lab hard drive.
Answer: B

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[Updated July 2017] Latest Juniper JNCIA-Junos JN0-102 Dumps Questions – JN0-102 Exam Certification on Slideshare

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Exam Code: JN0-102
Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Associate, Junos(JNCIA-Junos)
Updated: Jun 29, 2017
Q&As: 395

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JN0-102

QUESTION 62
— Exhibit —
user@router> show configuration
groups {
ge-int {
interfaces {
<ge-*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet {
address 10.10.12.1/24;
}
}
}
}
}
}

interfaces {
ge-0/0/1 {
unit 0;
}
— Exhibit —
Referring to the exhibit, which two actions would you take to only apply the 10.10.12.1/24 address to the
ge-0/0/1.0 interface?
A. Apply the ge-int group to the configuration at the [edit] hierarchy.
B. Apply the ge-int group to the configuration at the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1] hierarchy.
C. Apply the ge-int group to the configuration at the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1 unit 0] hierarchy.
D. Apply the ge-int group to the configuration at the [edit interfaces] hierarchy.
JN0-102 dumps Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 63
Which interface type connects the control and forwarding planes on an MX Series device?
A. fxp1
B. fxp0
C. me0
D. ae1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
Which command is used to restore a Junos device to its default state?
A. load factory-default
B. load override factory-default
C. load replace default
D. load set default
JN0-102 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
— Exhibit —
{master:0}[edit interfaces]
user@switch# show
me0 {
disable;
unit 0 {
familyinet {
address 10.1.1.10/24;
}
}
}
— Exhibit —
Administrators report that they are unable to access the management interface of the EX Series device
shown in the exhibit.
Which command will resolve this problem?
A. delete me0 disable
B. activate me0
C. set me0 unit 0 enable

D. deactivate me0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
Which statement is true about logical units?
A. Logical units are similar to VLANs used by other vendors.
B. A logical unit is required for transit interfaces.
C. Frame Relay encapsulation supports one logical unit.
D. Link speed and duplex are configured in the logical unit properties.
JN0-102 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
— Exhibit —
[edit system syslog]
user@router# show
host 152.170.10.10 {
any warning;
}
file changes {
change-log info;
}
— Exhibit —
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Any warning message will be sent to the 152.170.10.10 host.
B. A warning message will be logged when the 152.170.10.10 host logs in.
C. Changes to the device’s internal temperatures will be logged.
D. Changes to the configuration will be logged.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 68
Which command is used to load the rescue configuration?
A. load override rescue
B. rollback rescue
C. load replace rescue-configuration
D. rollback 49
JN0-102 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
Which two external authentication servers are supported for administrative access to a Junos device?
(Choose two.)
A. RADIUS
B. LDAP
C. ACE
D. TACACS+
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 70
— Exhibit —
user@router> restart

^
unknown command.
— Exhibit —
You are investigating routing problems on a device running the Junos OS. You receive the error shown in
the exhibit when you attempt to restart the routing process.
Which statement describes the problem?
A. You have typed an invalid command.
B. You must be in configuration mode to restart the routing process.
C. You do not have permission to restart the routing process.
D. You must wait until close of business to restart the routing process, based on user-defined policy.
JN0-102 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
At which command prompt would you issue the set date <date> command?
A. [edit chassis]
user@router#
B. [edit]
user@router#
C. [edit system]
user@router#
D. user@router>
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
You must apply the family inet configuration parameter only to Gigabit Ethernet interfaces that are in FPC
2.
Which output applies to this configuration?
A. [edit groups]
user@router# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<ge-*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}
}
}
}
B. [edit groups]
user@router# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}
}
}
}
C. [edit groups]
user@router# show
ge-int {
interfaces {

2/*/*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}
}
}
}
D. [edit groups]
user@router# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<ge-2/*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}
}
}
}
JN0-102 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73
— Exhibit —
[edit interfaces ge-0/0/1]
user@router# show
unit 100 {
vlan-id 100;
familyinet {
address /24;
}
}
[edit interfaces ge-0/0/1]
user@router# commit check
[edit interfaces ge-0/0/1]
‘unit 100’
Only unit 0 is valid for this encapsulation
error: configuration check-out failed
— Exhibit —
Referring to the exhibit, you are unable to commit the configuration for the ge-0/0/1 interface.
What must you do to commit the configuration?
A. You must set the vlan-tagging parameter under the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1] hierarchy.
B. You must use the rename command to change unit 100 to unit 0.
C. You must set the encapsulation flexible-ethernet-services parameter under the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1]
hierarchy.
D. You must set the encapsulation vlan-ccc parameter under the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1 unit 100]
hierarchy.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 74
You are asked to configure the configuration archival feature on your Junos devices.
Which two transfer methods are available? (Choose two.)
A. TFTP
B. FTP
C. SCP

D. SFTP
JN0-102 pdf Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 75
— Exhibit —
user@router> show system alarms
1 alarms currently active
Alarm time Class Description
2013-09-14 23:54:01 UTC Minor Rescue configuration is not set
— Exhibit —
Which command will resolve the problem shown in the exhibit?
A. user@router> request system configuration rescue save
B. user@router# request system configuration rescue save
C. user@router> file copy current /config/rescue.conf
D. user@router# file copy current /config/rescue.conf
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
Which command displays only the interfaces that are operationally and administratively up?
A. show interfaces terse | match up
B. show interfaces terse | match down
C. show interfaces terse | except up
D. show interfaces terse | except down
JN0-102 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77
To which directory does the Junos OS write traceoptions files?
A. /var/tmp/
B. /var/
C. /var/log/
D. /var/home/<username>/
Correct Answer: C

JN0-102

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[Updated June 2017] Free New Updated LPIC-2 117-202 Vce Regularly on Issuu Free 117-202 PDF Dumps Is Your Best Choice

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Exam Code: 117-202
Exam Name: LPI Level 2 Exam 202
Updated: Jun 24, 2017
Q&As: 294
Exam Information: https://www.pass4itsure.com/117-202.html

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117-202

QUESTION 21
Which setting in the Courier IMAP configuration file will tell the IMAP daemon to only listen on the localhost
interface?
A. ADDRESS=127.0.0.1
B. Listen 127.0.0.1
C. INTERFACE=127.0.0.1
D. LOCALHOST_ONLY=1
117-202 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
You suspect that you are receiving messages with a forged From: address. What could help you find out
where the mail is originating?
A. Install TCP wrappers, and log all connections on port 25
B. A dd the command ‘FR-strlog’ to the sendmail.cf file
C. Add the command ‘define (‘LOG_REAL_FROM’) dnl’ to the sendmail.mc file
D. Run a filter in the aliases file that checks the originating address when mail arrives
E. Look in the ReceiveD. and Message-ID. parts of the mail header
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
You have to mount the /data filesystem from an NFS server(srvl) that does not support locking. Which of
the following mount commands should you use?
A. mount -a -t nfs
B. mount -o locking=off srvl:/data /mnt/data
C. mount -o nolocking srvl:/data /mnt/data
D. mount -o nolock srvl:/data /mnt/data
E. mount -o nolock /data@srvl /mn/data
117-202 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
In what mode is your FTP session when the client side makes the connections to both the data and
command ports of the FTP server?
A. passive
B. active
C. impassive
D. safe
E. inactive
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which of the following organisations track and report on security related flaws in computer technology?
(Please select TWO answers)
A. Bugtraq
B. CERT
C. CSIS
D. Freshmeat
E. Kernel.org
117-202 pdf Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 26
Which of the following Linux services has support for only the Routing Information Protocol (RIP) routing
protocol?
A. gated
B. ipchains
C. netfilter
D. routed
E. zebra
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which of the following is NOT included in a Snort rule header?
A. protocol
B. action
C. source IP address
D. packet byte offset
E. source port
117-202 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which environment variables are used by ssh-agent? (Please select TWO variables)
A. SSH_AGENT_KEY
B. SSH_AGENT_SOCK
C. SSH_AGENT_PID
D. SSH_AUTH_SOCK
E. SSH_AUTH_PID
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 29
What tool scans log files for unsuccessful login attempts and blocks the offending IP addresses with
firewall rules?
A. nessus
B. nmap
C. nc
D. watchlogs
E. fail2ban
117-202 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 30
Running sysctl has the same effect as:
A. Changing the kernel compilation parameters
B. Writing to files inside /proc
C. Changing process limits using ulimit
D. Editing files inside /etc/sysconfig
E. There is no equivalent to this utility
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Which files are read by the lsdev command? (Please specify THREE answers)
A. /proc/dma
B. /proc/filesystems
C. /proc/interrupts
D. /proc/ioports
E. /proc/swaps
117-202 dumps Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 32
Which of the following describes the main purpose of strace?
A. Show the TCP/IP stack data, to help to solve network problems
B. Help to follow the traces of intruders of the internal network
C. Debug programs by displaying the original code of the program. It is a kind of “disassembler”
D. Reverse engineer applications, resulting in the source code of the program
E. Debug programs by monitoring system calls and reporting them
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 33
The following data is some of the output produced by a program. Which program produced this output?
strftime (” Thu”, 1024, “%a”, 0xb7f64380) =4
fwrite (“Thu”, 3, 1, 0xb7f614e0) =1
fputc (‘ ‘, 0xb7f614e0) =32
strftime (” Feb”, 1024, ” %b”, 0xb7f64380) =4
fwrite (“Feb”, 3, 1, 0xb7f614e0) =1
fputc (‘ ‘, 0xb7f614e0) =32
fwrite (“19”, 2, 1, 0xb7f614e0) =1
A. lsof
B. ltrace
C. nm
D. strace
E. time
117-202 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
On bootup, LILO prints out LIL and stops. What is the cause of this?
A. The descriptor table is bad
B. LILO failed to load the second stage loader
C. LILO failed to load the primary stage loader
D. LILO failed to locate the kernel image
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
A server was rebuilt using a full system backup but with a different disk setup. The kernel won’t boot,
complaining it cannot find the root filesystem. Which of the following commands will fix this error by
pointing the kernel image to the new root partition?
A. mkbootdisk
B. tune2fs
C. rdev
D. grub-install
E. fdisk
117-202 vce Correct Answer: C

117-202

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[Updated June 2017] New Release 070-487 PDF Dumps for Developing Windows Azure and Web Services on VideoBash

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Exam Code:070-487
Exam Name: Developing Windows Azure and Web Services
Updated: Jun 13, 2017
Q&As: 113
Exam Information: https://www.pass4itsure.com/070-487.html

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070-487

Testlet 1
Topic 1, Scenario 1
Background
You are developing a flight information consolidation service. The service retrieves flight information from a number of sources and combines them into a single
data set. The consolidated flight information is stored in a SQL Server database. Customers can query and retrieve the data by using a REST API provided by the
service.
The service also offers access to historical flight information. The historical flight information can be filtered and queried in an ad hoc manner.
The service runs on a Windows Azure Web Role. SSL is not used.
Business Requirements
A new data source for historical flight information is being developed by a contractor located on another continent.
If a time zone is not specified, then it should be interpreted as Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).
When you upgrade a service from a staging deployment to a production deployment, the time that the service is unavailable must be minimized.
The default port must be used for HTTP.
Technical Requirements
The existing sources of flight information and the mechanism of exchange are listed below.
Blue Yonder Airlines provides flight information in an XML file.
Consolidated Messenger provides flight information in a Microsoft Access database that is uploaded every 12 hours to the service using SFTP. The company
uses port 22 for SFTP.
Margie’s Travel provides and consumes flight information using serialized ADO.NET DataSets. Data is periodically synced between the service and Margie’s
Travel.
Trey Research provides data from multiple sources serialized in proprietary binary formats. The data must be read by using .NET assemblies provided by Trey
Research. The assemblies use a common set of dependencies. The current version of the Trey Research assemblies is 1.2.0.0. All assemblies provided by
Trey Research are signed with a key pair contained in a file named Trey.snk, which Trey Research also supplies.
The application specification requires that any third-party assemblies must have strong names.

070-487

QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a data access technology to the contractor to retrieve data from the new data source.
Which data access technology should you recommend?
A. LINQ to XML
B. ADO.NET Entity Framework
C. ADO.NET DataSets
D. WCF Data Services
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 


QUESTION 2
Errors occasionally occur when saving data using the FlightInfoContext ADO.NET Entity Framework context. Updates to the data are being lost when an error
occurs.
You need to ensure that data is still saved when an error occurs by retrying the operation. No more than five retries should be performed.
Which code segment should you use as the body of the SaveChanges() method in the FlightInfoContext.es file?

070-487

070-487

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 


QUESTION 3
You are adding a new REST service endpoint to the FlightDataController controller. It returns flights from the consolidated data sources only for flights that are
late.
You need to write a LINQ to Entities query to extract the required data.
Which code segment should you use?
070-487

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
D is right because you send result as REST so if you use “AsQueryable” the result is deferred to the next enumeration of your result.
D is not optimized but will works.
A will break at runtime.
Credits to Rem

 


QUESTION 4
Data provided by Consolidated Messenger is cached in the HttpContext.Cache object.
You need to ensure that the cache is correctly updated when new data arrives.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that the EffectivePrivateBytesLimit value is greater than the size of the database file.
B. Change the sliding expiration of the cache item to 12 hours.
C. Use the SqlCacheDependency type configured with a connection string to the database file.
D. Use the CacheDependency type configured to monitor the SFTP target folder.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: 070-487

 

 

QUESTION 5
You need to load flight information provided by Consolidated Messenger.
Which should you use?
A. SQL Server Data Transformation Services (DTS)
B. EntityTransaction and EntityCommand
C. Office Open XML
D. OleDbConnection and OleDbDataReader
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 6
You are adding a new REST service endpoint to the FlightDataController controller that returns the total number of seats for each airline.
You need to write a LINQ to Entities query to extract the required data.
Which code segment should you use?

070-487

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 


QUESTION 7
You need to load flight information provided by Consolidated Messenger.
What should you use?
A. Office Open XML
B. COM interop
C. OleDbConnection and OleDbDataReader
D. EntityConnection and EntityDataReader
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 


QUESTION 8
Historical flight information data will be stored in Windows Azure Table Storage using the FlightInfo class as the table entity.
There are millions of entries in the table. Queries for historical flight information specify a set of airlines to search and whether the query should return only late
flights. Results should be ordered by flight name.
You need to specify which properties of the FlightInfo class should be used at the partition and row keys to ensure that query results are returned as quickly as
possible.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Use the WasLate property as the row key.
B. Use the Airline property as the row key.
C. Use the WasLate property as the partition key
D. Use the Arrival property as the row key.
E. Use the Airline property as the partition key.
F. Use the Flight property as the row key.
Correct Answer: BF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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[Updated June 2017] Most Popular 070-461 PDF Yumpu Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Get Score A+ IT Exam

Choosing Pass4itsure 070-461 pdf  study material means you choose an effective, smart, and fast way to succeed in your 070-461 exam certification. You will find explanations along with the answers where is necessary in the 070-461 pdf actual test files. With the study by the 070-461 pdf torrent, you will have a clear understanding of the 070-461 valid dumps.

Exam Code: 070-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Jun 02, 2017
Q&As: 144
Exam Information: http://www.pass4itsure.com/070-461.html

Pass4itsure 070-461 pdf  Create database objects (20–25%)

  • Create and alter tables using T-SQL syntax (simple statements)
    • Create tables without using the built in tools; ALTER; DROP; ALTER COLUMN; CREATE
  • Create and alter views (simple statements)
    • Create indexed views; create views without using the built in tools; CREATE, ALTER, DROP
  • Design views
    • Ensure code non regression by keeping consistent signature for procedure, views and function (interfaces); security implications
  • Create and modify constraints (simple statements)
    • Create constraints on tables; define constraints; unique constraints; default constraints; primary and foreign key constraints
  • Create and alter DML triggers
    • Inserted and deleted tables; nested triggers; types of triggers; update functions; handle multiple rows in a session; performance implications of triggers

In addition, you can print the Pass4itsure 070-461 pdf dumps into papers, thus you can do marks on the papers. Every time, when you review the papers, you will enhance your memory about the marked points. Be confident to attend your 070-461 exam test, you will pass successfully.

070-461

Question No : 16
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You need to create a batch process that meets the following requirements:
Returns a result set based on supplied parameters.
Enables the returned result set to perform a join with a table.
Which object should you use?
A. Inline user-defined function
B. Stored procedure
C. Table-valued user-defined function
D. Scalar user-defined function
Answer: C
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You need to create and call a stored procedure that meets the following requirements:
Accepts a single input parameter for CustomerID.
Returns a single integer to the calling application.
Which Transact-SQL statement or statements should you use? (Each correct answer
presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.GetCustomerRating @Customer INT, @CustomerRatIng
INT OUTPUT
AS
SET NOCOUNT ON SELECT @CustomerRating = CustomerOrders/CustomerValue
FROM Customers WHERE CustomerID = @CustomerID
RETURN
GO
B. EXECUTE dbo.GetCustomerRatIng 1745
C. DECLARE @customerRatingBycustomer INT
DECLARE @Result INT
EXECUTE @Result = dbo.GetCustomerRating
1745
, @CustomerRatingSyCustomer
D. CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.GetCustomerRating @CustomerID INT, @CustomerRating

Question No : 17
INT OUTPUT
AS
SET NOCOUNT ON
SELECT @Result = CustomerOrders/CustomerValue
FROM Customers WHERE CustomerID = @CustomeriD
RETURN @Result
GO
E. DECLARE @CustomerRatIngByCustcmer INT
EXECUTE dbo.GetCustomerRating @CustomerID = 1745,
@CustomerRating = @CustomerRatingByCustomer OUTPUT
F. CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.GetCustomerRating
@CustomerID INT
AS
DECLARE @Result INT
SET NOCOUNT ON
SELECT @Result = CustomerOrders/CustomerVaLue
FROM Customers
WHERE Customer= = @CustomerID
RETURNS @Result
Answer: A,E

Question No : 18
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a heap named
OrdersHistoncal.
You write the following Transact-SQL query:
INSERT INTO OrdersHistorical
SELECT * FROM CompletedOrders
You need to optimize transaction logging and locking for the statement. Which table hint
should you use?
A. HOLDLOCK
B. ROWLOCK
C. XLOCK
D. UPDLOCK
E. TABLOCK
Answer: E
Reference: 

Question No : 19
You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains two tables named
SalesOrderHeader and SalesOrderDetail. The indexes on the tables are as shown in the
exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-461
You write the following Transact-SQL query:
070-461
You discover that the performance of the query is slow. Analysis of the query plan shows
table scans where the estimated rows do not match the actual rows for SalesOrderHeader
by using an unexpected index on SalesOrderDetail.
You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Use a FORCESCAN hint in the query.
B. Add a clustered index on SalesOrderId in SalesOrderHeader.
C. Use a FORCESEEK hint in the query.
D. Update statistics on SalesOrderId on both tables.
Answer: D
Explanation:

Question No : 20
Your database contains a table named Purchases. The table includes a DATETIME
column named PurchaseTime that stores the date and time each purchase is made. There
is a non-clustered index on the PurchaseTime column.
The business team wants a report that displays the total number of purchases made on the
current day.
You need to write a query that will return the correct results in the most efficient manner.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime = CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE())
B. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime = GETDATE()
C. SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Purchases
WHERE CONVERT(VARCHAR, PurchaseTime, 112) = CONVERT(VARCHAR,
GETDATE(), 112)
D. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime >= CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE())
AND PurchaseTime < DATEADD(DAY, 1, CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE()))
Answer: D
Explanation:
Two answers will return the correct results (the “WHERE CONVERT…” and “WHERE …
AND … ” answers).
The correct answer for Microsoft would be the answer that is most “efficient”. Anybody
have a clue as to which is most efficient? In the execution plan, the one that I’ve selected
as the correct answer is the query with the shortest duration. Also, the query answer with
“WHERE CONVERT…” threw warnings in the execution plan…something about affecting
CardinalityEstimate and SeekPlan.
I also found this article, which leads me to believe that I have the correct answer:

Question No : 21
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other
database objects.
You need to store media files in several tables.
Each media file is less than 1 MB in size. The media files will require fast access and will
be retrieved frequently.
What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Answer: F

Question No : 22
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other
database objects.
You create a view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report.
You need to display dates and times in several international formats.
What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Answer: C

Question No : 23
You are a database developer of a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You are designing a table that will store Customer data from different sources. The table
will include a column that contains the CustomerID from the source system and a column
that contains the SourceID.
A sample of this data is as shown in the following table.

070-461

You need to ensure that the table has no duplicate CustomerID within a SourceID. You
also need to ensure that the data in the table is in the order of SourceID and then
CustomerID.
Which Transact- SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
B. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
C. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerID int NOT NULL UNIQUE,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
D. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT PK_Customer PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED

(SourceID, CustomerID));
Answer: D
You have three tables that contain data for vendors, customers, and agents. You create a
view that is used to look up telephone numbers for these companies.
The view has the following definition:


Question No : 24
070-461

You need to ensure that users can update only the phone numbers by using this view.
What should you do?
A. Alter the view. Use the EXPAND VIEWS query hint along with each SELECT statement.
B. Drop the view. Re-create the view by using the SCHEMABINDING clause, and then
create an index on the view.

C. Create an AFTER UPDATE trigger on the view.
D. Create an INSTEAD OF UPDATE trigger on the view.
Answer: D

Question No : 25
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains tables named Employee
and Person.
The tables have the following definitions:
070-461
Users are able to use single INSERT statements or INSERT…SELECT statements into this
view.You need to ensure that users are able to use a single statement to insert records into both
Employee and Person tables by using the VwEmployee view.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
FOR INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName, FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonId, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM inserted
END
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName, FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonId, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM inserted
END
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE @ID INT, @FirstName NVARCHAR(25), @LastName NVARCHAR(25),
@PersonID
INT, @EmployeeNumber NVARCHAR(15)
SELECT @ID = ID, @FirstName = FirstName, @LastName = LastName,
@EmployeeNumber
= EmployeeNumber
FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
VALUES(@ID, @FirstName, @LastName)
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonID, EmployeeNumber)
VALUES(@PersonID, @EmployeeNumber
End
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName FROM VwEmployee
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonID, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM VwEmployee
End
Answer: B

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