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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: Sep 04, 2017
Q&As: 476

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Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps

Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?
A. There is no default gateway.
B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.
C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.
300-101 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The 0.0.0.0/0 route is the default route and is listed as the first CEF entry. Here we see the next hop for this default route lists 192.168.201.1 as the default router
(gateway of last resort).
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps

A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?
A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To display information about the Cisco Express Forwarding adjacency table or the hardware Layer 3-switching adjacency table, use the show adjacency
command.
Reasons for Incomplete Adjacencies
There are two known reasons for an incomplete adjacency:
The router cannot use ARP successfully for the next-hop interface.
After a clear ip arp or a clear adjacency command, the router marks the adjacency as incomplete. Then it fails to clear the entry.
In an MPLS environment, IP CEF should be enabeled for Label Switching. Interface level command ip route-cache cef
No ARP Entry
When CEF cannot locate a valid adjacency for a destination prefix, it punts the packets to the CPU for ARP resolution and, in turn, for completion of the adjacency.
QUESTION 3
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which 300-101 dumps condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
TCP global synchronization in computer networks can happen to TCP/IP flows during periods of congestion because each sender will reduce their transmission
rate at the same time when packet loss occurs.
Routers on the Internet normally have packet queues, to allow them to hold packets when the network is busy, rather than discarding them.
Because routers have limited resources, the size of these queues is also limited. The simplest technique to limit queue size is known as tail drop. The queue is
allowed to fill to its maximum size, and then any new packets are simply discarded, until there is space in the queue again. This causes problems when used on
TCP/IP routers handling multiple TCP streams, especially when bursty traffic is present. While the network is stable, the queue is constantly full, and there are no
problems except that the full queue results in high latency. However, the introduction of a sudden burst of traffic may cause large numbers of established, steady
streams to lose packets simultaneously.
QUESTION 4
Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.)
A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
It is a general best practice not to mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially streaming video) within a single service provider class due to the behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters will throttle-back flows when drops have been detected. Although some
UDP applications have application-level windowing, 300-101 pdf flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and thus never lower transmission rates due to dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows in a single service provider class and the class experiences congestion, then TCP flows will continually lower their rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to drop-oblivious UDP flows. This effect is called TCP-starvation UDP-dominance. This can increase latency and lower the overall throughput. TCP-starvation/UDP-dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) mission-critical data is assigned to the same service provider class as (UDP-based) streaming video and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is enabled on the service provider class, the same behavior would be observed, as WRED (for the most part) only affects TCP-based flows. Granted, it is not always possible to separate TCP-based flows from UDP-based flows, but it is beneficial to be aware of this behavior when making such application-mixing decisions. Reference:

QUESTION 5.The format of an IP address is w.x.y.z. What does each letter represent?
A.a decimal number from 1 to 64
B.a decimal number from 1 to 32
C.a decimal number from 1 to 16
D.a decimal number from 1 to 254
E.None of the above
300-101 vce Correct:D
QUESTION 6.Which of the following is TRUE about the Linux kernel? (Select the best answer.)
A.The kernel allows the user to directly interact with the hardware registers.
B.The kernel allows dynamic loading and unloading of device drivers.
C.The kernel is a software package that includes the shell.
D.The kernel is stored in the MBR.
Correct:B
QUESTION 7.When an environmental event occurs, the current program is suspended and an Interrupt
Service Request is entered. Before this, the state of the current program is saved so that the CPU
can return to it.
A.True
B.False
300-101 exam Correct:
QUESTION 8.Which of the following is/are TRUE about I/O addresses?
A.I/O addresses identify the shared memory between two devices.
B.I/O addresses assist in passing data back and forth once the device has been identified by the IRQ.
C.Devices can share I/O addresses.
D.None of the above.
E.Both B and C
Correct:B
QUESTION 9
What is an element in UML 2.0?
A. member of a set
B. instance of a class
C. constituent of a model
D. abstract metaclass with only one superclass
E. substance not separable by ordinary chemical means
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
What is a relationship in UML 2.0?
A. the state of being related
B. an element that has no derived union
C. an element that has no derived composition
D. an element that must have two owned elements
E. an element that specifies a connection between elements
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11
What is true about a comment in UML 2.0? (Choose two)
A. is shown as a note symbol
B. must be attached to at most one element
C. contains only machine-readable symbols
D. can be attached to more than one element
E. connections are always shown with a dashed line
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12
What is true about every named element that is a member of a namespace?
A. It is owned by the namespace.
B. It has one unique name within the namespace.
C. It is identified by its name within the namespace.
D. It can be distinguished from other members in the namespace.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
What is true of the import example in the exhibit?
A. Webshop is imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary and Types.
B. Auxiliary and Types are imported into ShoppingCart, but neither can be further imported into WebShop.
C. Public members of WebShop are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary or
Types.
D. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into
WebShop.
E. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and those from Types are
further imported into WebShop.
300-101 vce Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 14
What does an {ordered} designator do for a multiplicity?
A. specifies that values are sequentially ordered
B. specifies an inclusive interval of non-negative integers
C. indicates the correct sequence of messages in a sequence diagram
D. indicates that the upper bound must be greater than the lower bound for the multiplicity
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
What is an expression in UML 2.0?
A. comment placed on a diagram
B. symbol or symbols signifying a set of value
C. graphical addition to a diagramming element
D. language-specific string used to describe the meaning of a diagram
E. language-specific text string used to describe the contents of a diagram
300-101 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Constraints are shown using what symbols?
A. [ ]
B. ( )
C. { }
D. ?”
E. ” ”
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-775
Exam Name: Perform Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure HDInsight (beta)
Updated: Aug 27, 2017
Q&As: 102

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QUESTION 37
Interviewers should never be able to view a candidate’s social security number. Which tool would you use
to meet this requirement?
A. Record types

B. Field-level security
C. Page Layouts
D. Page Layouts with Record Types
70-775 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Which feature establishes the baseline level of access a user has to records they do not own?
A. Roles
B. Organization-wide defaults
C. Profiles
D. Sharing Rules
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
If a developer wants interviewers to view positions, but to never view the Pay Grade listed for a position,
which tool would the developer use?
A. Field-level security on positions
B. Page Layouts
C. Field-level security on grades
D. Record types
70-775 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
How can a developer restrict access to records?
A. By changing the organization-wide defaults
B. By creating manual sharing
C. By creating a new role hierarchy
D. By creating a public group
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Which function verifies the format of the data?
A. CASE
B. ISNEW
C. REGEX
D. IF
70-775 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
Which of the following statements are true? (Select all that apply.)
A. The ISCHANGED function compares the value of a field with its previous value and returns TRUE if the
values are different. If the values are the same, this function returns FALSE.
B. The ISNUMBER function determines if a text value is a number and returns TRUE if it is; otherwise, it
returns FALSE.
C. The ISNEW function compares a text field to a regular expression
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 43
Which of the following actions are tracked in debug logs? (Select all that apply.)
A. Database changes
B. Manual workflow processes
C. Request-response HTML
D. Resources used by an Apex script
70-775 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 44
When are validation rules applied?
A. When a user saves a record.
B. When a user views a record.
C. When a user exports a record.
D. When a user reports on a record.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
Identify the features of a workflow rule. (Select all that apply.)
A. It triggers an action when a record meets the criteria for the rule.
B. It can trigger only immediate actions.
C. It is evaluated before the rule is created.
D. It can be triggered on import of data.
70-775 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 46
Time-Dependent workflow can be used when a workflow rule is set to evaluate Every time a record is
created or updated.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
Select the actions that can be associated with a workflow rule? (Select all that apply.)
A. Send an email
B. Send an outbound message
C. Create a record
D. Update a field
E. Create a task
F. Send an inbound message
70-775 dumps Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 48
The only way to test whether a time-dependent workflow rule is executing as expected is to wait.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
If a record that has an action pending against it in the time-based workflow queue is modified so that the
record no longer meets the criteria or the timing changes, the action will be updated in the queue.
A. True
B. False
70-775 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
If a record no longer meets the time based workflow rule criteria, the action executes as originally triggered
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
The option to skip to the next step is available only if a step has subsequent steps.
A. True
B. False
70-775 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
In a multistep process, when do you decide the decision criteria and approval assignment?
A. Creating initial submission actions
B. Defining recall actions
C. Deciding step definition
D. Setting final approval actions
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
How many versions of a flow can be active at one time?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
70-775 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
What are the different ways a flow can be deployed? (Select all that apply.)
A. Custom button
B. Custom link
C. Visualforce page
D. Apex trigger
E. Field Updates
F. Custom actions
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 55
Which of the following statements are true about field history tracking? (Select all that apply.)
A. it allows developer s to choose only custom fields for tracking changes.
B. It allows developers to choose up to 20 fields per object for tracking changes.
C. It does not track old and new values for long text area fields and multi-select picklists.
D. It replaces an old entry with a new entry in the History related list, any time a user modifies any of the
standard
70-775 dumps Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 56
Which of the following statements about setup audit trail are true? (Select all that apply.)
A. Tracks setup changes made by developers and administrators
B. Displays 20 most recent changes
C. Tracks only the date of change
D. Tracks changes to data in custom object records
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 57
The Created Date field can be updated on a record using the Inserting System Fields feature.
A. True
B. False
70-775 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
What are ways in which you can obtain a record’s ID? (Select all that apply.)
A. URL
B. Reports
C. Data Loader
D. On each record
E. Import Wizard
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 59
Data Loader does not use the SOAP-based Web services by default.
A. True
B. False
70-775 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
What does development mode enable? (Select all that apply)
A. Inline editor
B. File check In and out
C. Page creation
D. Development sandbox
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 61
What type of content can be include in Visualforce pages? (Select all that apply.)
A. Text
B. HTML
C. JavaScript
D. Flash
70-775 exam Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 62
Which of the following best defines controllers?
A. A set of instructions specifying what happens when a user interacts with the components specified in
the page. Available for all standard and custom objects.
B. These contain the code for displaying a custom user Interface, and are a combination of standard Web
technologies such as HTML JavaScript (including AJAX), and Flex.
C. These are either standard or custom UI const
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63
Script tags allow you to create JavaScript (or other types of) functions that can be used with in your pages.
A. True
B. False
70-775 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
You can only use Style tags to change the look and feel of a page.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
You can use the component to deploy a flow within a Visualforce page
A. True
B. False
70-775 pdf Correct Answer: A

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Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016
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Q&As: 107

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QUESTION 1
Videoconferencing over IP End Point Systems must use signalling to establish a media channel
conference Call Setup. Call Operations are part of what Standard?
A. LAP / B
B. LAP / D
C. H.225/Q.921
D. H.225/Q.931
E. H.225/H.261
70-743 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
What does Automatic Gain Control (AGC) do?
A. It turns down the volume to the far-end microphone.
B. It turns up the volume to the far-end microphone.
C. It builds the volume to the near-end microphone.
D. It selects among multiple microphones.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which of the following correctly describes reverberation and echo?
A. Reverberation is long, distinct, acoustic reflections.
B. Reverberation is irrelevant to conferencing audio.
C. Echo is a coherent, distinct carry-on of sound.
D. Echo is short, diffuse, acoustic reflections that linger after the original sound has stopped.
E. Reverberation is an incoherent, diffuse, carry-on of sound
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 4
Which audio coding uses a transport speed 16 kilobits per second?
A. G.722
B. G.728
C. G.722.1
D. G.711
E. G.729
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following accurately describes room gain as it applies to acoustic echo cancellation?
A. Relative sensitivity of the microphones expressed in dB versus the same microphone in a “free field”
environment
B. Relative perceived loudness of a person speaking in a given room versus the same person speaking in
an anechoic chamber
C. Ratio of loudness of the participants voices versus the loudspeaker volume arriving at the microphone
D. Measure of amplifier power driving the loudspeakers in a given conference room
70-743 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which of the following correctly describes typical audio phantom power?
A. 12 volts DC applied to the tip and ring of a TRS connector used to power amplified headphones
B. A DC voltage applied to pins 2 and 3 of an XLR connector returning through pin 1, used to power
microphones
C. A DC voltage applied to the center pin of an RCA type connector used to power remote pre- amplifiers
D. 48 volts DC applied to a telephone circuit center pair used to provide power to the telephone set
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which ISDN Bearer Service is used for Video Conferencing?
A. Circuit Switched Data
B. Circuit Switched Video
C. Low Speed Packet Switching
D. Circuit Switched Voice
E. High Speed Packet Switching
70-743 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which video coding is currently supported by H.320?
A. H.261and H.263only
B. H.263 only
C. H.261, H.263 and H.264
D. H.262 only
E. H.261 only
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which of the following functions can NOT be performed by a microphone mixer?
A. Provide phantom power to microphones.
B. Provide a means to adjust the relative gain of different microphones.
C. Provide gain to convert mic-level signals to line-level signals.
D. Provide a means to adjust the video display brightness.
E. Provide a means to adjust the room acoustics
70-743 exam Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
The H.323 Media Gateways require H.323 Terminals, which wish to make calls through the Gateway to
ISDN sites, to
A. perform a test with the other H.323 Terminals first.
B. be registered with the Gatekeeper first.
C. be using a Gatekeeper Prefix defined on the End Point.
D. be using a Gateway Prefix registered on an Active Gatekeeper.
E. be registered with the MCU first.
F. call the Network administrator first.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Videoconference rate of a H.323 IP Call requires the packet examination of which of the following?
A. Gatekeeper Registration Request
B. UDP Header
C. Packet Payload
D. IP Header
E. TCP Layer
F. Medium Access Control Layer
G. RTP Header
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Local Area Network Metallic Interfaces are
A. C and D
B. connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves limited distances.
C. connection oriented, point to point connectivity only.
D. connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves unlimited distances.
E. All of the other alternatives apply.
F. unshared network that serves unlimited endpoints.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
If a Y/C cable is plugged in and the result is a black and white video, which signal is not being seen?
A. Chrominance signal
B. Red, Green, and Blue signal
C. Super VHS sync signal
D. Luminance signal
70-743 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
The H.225 describes a reliable transport for which two video conferencing requirements?
A. Data (T.120) Packets
B. Call Signaling Packets
C. Audio Packets
D. RAS Signaling Packets
E. Video Packets
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 15
Where is the G.711 A-law used?
A. ATM Networks
B. T1 Networks
C. T3 Networks
D. E1 Networks
70-743 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
When configuring VTCs and MCUs to Statically configured IP networks what three settings would need to
be provided for the system parameters?
A. IP Date and Time Clock
B. IP Network Provider Name
C. IP Network Speed in Packets per second
D. IP Mask
E. Default Gateway (Router)
F. Domain Name Settings
G. IP Network Speed in Bytes per second
H. IP Address
Correct Answer: DEH
QUESTION 17
What effect does the zoom function have relative to the camera’s field of view?
A. It can either widen or narrow the field at full zoom.
B. It narrows the field at full zoom.
C. It widens the field at full zoom.
D. It has no effect on the field of view.
70-743 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which of the following correctly describe the role room acoustics play regarding acoustic echo
cancellation?
A. Hard room surfaces act as reflectors for sound, causing multiple acoustic paths from loudspeaker to
microphone.
B. Fans, heaters, and air conditioners add background noise to the room, changing the room acoustic
paths.
C. Heavy drapes and acoustic absorbers remove acoustic paths and therefore cause problems for
acoustic echo cancellers.
D. People moving around in a room change the acoustic paths presented to a microphone.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 19
MCU is the acronym for which of the following?
A. Multipoint Control Unit
B. Multipoint Capabilities and Unidirectional
C. Management Conferencing Union
D. Management Control Unit
70-743 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which of the following are the two most correct definitions of ISDN reference points?
A. S/T Reference point is between the Network Termination and the Network Exchange Equipment
B. S/T Reference point is between ISDN Terminal Equipment and the Network Termination
C. U Reference point is between the Network Termination and the Network Exchange Equipment
D. U Reference point is between the ISDN terminal and the network termination

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 21
The H.264 supports which of the following frame rates?
A. 30, 10 only
B. 30, 15, 12, 7.5 only
C. 30, 15, 10, 7.5, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, and 1
D. 30, 10, 7.5, 6 only
70-743 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
MPEG4 Part 10 (H.264) coder requires what network data rate to sustain full motion video at SIF
resolution?
A. More than 10,000 kilobits per second
B. More than 3,000 kilobits per second
C. Less than 1 kilobit per second
D. Less than 384 kilobits per second
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
The G.723.1 uses which bit rates?
A. 8 and 16 kilobytes per second
B. 5.3 and 6.3 kilobytes per second
C. 5.3 and 6.3 kilobits per second
D. 12 and 24 kilobits per second
E. 8 and 16 kilobits per second
70-743 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Browsing sites and Managing Multipoint Conferences from the Video End Point is part of which standard?
A. H.233
B. H.243
C. H.234
D. H.242
E. H.281
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Network Address Translation works in which OSI Layer?
A. Layer 4
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 5
D. None of the other alternatives apply.
70-743 exam Correct Answer B

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Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Updated: Aug 13, 2017
Q&As: 427

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DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware failure.
You plan to remove DC3 from the domain.
You log on to DC3.
You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3.
What should you do?
A. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
B. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
C. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
D. Run dcdiag /test:dns.
70-417 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Your network contains a Hyper-V host named Server1 that hosts 20 virtual machines.
You need to view the amount of memory resources and processor resources each virtual machine uses
currently.
Which tool should you use on Server1?
A. Resource Monitor
B. Task Manager
C. Hyper-V Manager
D. Windows System Resource Manager (WSRM)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server
role installed.
The disks on Server1 are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

70-417 dumps

You create a virtual machine on Server1.
You need to ensure that you can configure a pass-through disk for the virtual machine.
What should you do?
A. Convert Disk 1 to a GPT disk.
B. Convert Disk 1 to a dynamic disk.
C. Delete partition E.
D. Take Disk 1 offline.
70-417 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The Active Directory Recycle bin
is enabled for contoso.com.
A support technician accidentally deletes a user account named User1.
You need to restore the User1 account.
Which tool should you use?
A. Ldp
B. Esentutl

C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Ntdsutil
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers
named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All servers have the
Hyper-V server role and the Failover Clustering feature installed.
The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

70-417 dumps

You need to replicate virtual machines from Cluster1 to Cluster2.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose three.)
A. From Hyper-V Manager on a node in Cluster2, create three virtual machines.
B. From Cluster2, add and configure the Hyper-V Replica Broker role.
C. From Failover Cluster Manager on Cluster1, configure each virtual machine for replication.
D. From Cluster1, add and configure the Hyper-V Replica Broker role.
E. From Hyper-V Manager on a node in Cluster2/ modify the Hyper-V settings.
70-417 pdf
 Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 is an enterprise root certification authority (CA) for contoso.com.
Your user account is assigned the certificate manager role and the auditor role on the contoso.com CA.
Your account is a member of the local Administrators group on Server1.
You enable CA role separation on Server1.
You need to ensure that you can manage the certificates on the CA.
What should you do?
A. Remove your user account from the local Administrators group.
B. Assign the CA administrator role to your user account.
C. Assign your user account the Bypass traverse checking user right.
D. Remove your user account from the Manage auditing and security log user right.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain.
The forest contains two Active Directory sites named Site1 and Site2.
You plan to deploy a read-only domain controller (RODC) named DC10 to Site2. You pre-create the DC10
domain controller account by using Active Directory Users and Computers.

You need to identify which domain controller will be used for initial replication during the promotion of the
RODC.
Which tab should you use to identify the domain controller?
To answer, select the appropriate tab in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-417 dumps

Hot Area:
70-417 dumps

70-417 vce Correct Answer:
70-417 dumps

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four member
servers named Server 1, Server2, Server3, and Server4. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 are located in a site named Site1. Server3 and Server4 are located in a site named
Site2. The servers are configured as nodes in a failover cluster named Cluster1.
Cluster1 is configured to use the Node Majority quorum configuration.
You need to ensure that Server1 is the only server in Site1 that can vote to maintain quorum.
What should you run from Windows PowerShell?
To answer, drag the appropriate commands to the correct location. Each command may be used once,

more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-417 dumps

Correct Answer:
 70-417 dumps

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
Your network contains four servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.

Each server has the Failover Clustering feature installed. Each server has three network adapters
installed. An iSCSI SAN is available on the network.
You create a failover cluster named Cluster1. You add the servers to the cluster.
You plan to configure the network settings of each server node as shown in the following table.

70-417 dumps

You need to configure the network settings for Cluster1.
What should you do?
To answer, drag the appropriate network communication setting to the correct cluster network or networks.
Each network communication setting may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to
drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
 70-417 dumps

70-417 exam Correct Answer:
70-417 dumps

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
Recently, all of the domain controllers that ran Windows Server 2003 were replaced by domain controllers
that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
From Event Viewer, you discover SYSVOL journal wrap errors on a domain controller named
dc10.contoso.com.
You need to perform a non-authoritative synchronization of SYSVOL on DC10.
Which three actions should you perform on DC10?
To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange
them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

70-417 dumps

Select and Place:
70-417 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-417 dumps

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
Your network contains a RADIUS server named Admin1.
You install a new server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has Network Policy
Server (NPS) installed.
You need to ensure that all accounting requests for Server2 are forwarded to Admin1.
On Server2, you create a new remote RADIUS server group named Group1 that contains Admin1.
What should you configure next on Server2?
To answer, select the appropriate node in the answer area.
Hot Area:

 70-417 dumps

 70-417 dumps

70-417 dumps Correct Answer:
70-417 dumps

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three
servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

70-417 dumps

Server1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

70-417 dumps

Template1 contains custom cryptography settings that are required by the corporate security team.
On Server2, an administrator successfully installs a certificate based on Template1.
The administrator reports that Template1 is not listed in the Certificate Enrollment wizard on Server3, even
after selecting the Show all templates check box.
You need to ensure that you can install a server authentication certificate on Server3. The certificate must
comply with the cryptography requirements.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence?
To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange
them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-417 dumps

Select and Place:
70-417 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-417 dumps

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server
named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You create a user account named User1 in the
domain.
You need to ensure that User1 can use Windows Server Backup to back up Server1.
The solution must minimize the number of administrative rights assigned to User1.
What should you do?
A. Assign User1 the Back up files and directories user right.
B. Add User1 to the Backup Operators group.
C. Add User1 to the Power Users group.
D. Assign User1 the Back up files and directories user right and the Restore files and directories user
right.
70-417 pdf
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two sites named
Main and Branch. The Main site contains 400 desktop computers and the Branch site contains 150
desktop computers. All of the desktop computers run Windows 8.
In Main, the network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. You
install the Windows Server Update Services server role on Server1.

You need to ensure that Windows updates obtained from Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) are
the same for the computers in each site.
You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. From the Update Services console, create computer groups
B. From the Update Services console, configure the Computers options
C. From the Group Policy Management console, configure the Windows Update settings
D. From the Group Policy Management console, configure the Windows Anytime Upgrade settings
E. From the Update Services console, configure the Synchronization Schedule options
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Your network contains three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3. All servers run Windows
Server 2012 R2.
You need to ensure that Server1 can provide iSCSI storage for Server2 and Server3. What should you do
on Server1?
A. Install the iSCSI Target Server role service and configure iSCSI targets
B. Start the Microsoft iSCSI Initiator Service and configure the iSCSI Initiator Properties
C. Install the iSNS Server service feature and create a Discovery Domain
D. Install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature and configure the MPIO Properties
70-417 vce
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 210-255
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
Updated: Aug 04, 2017
Q&As: 65

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210-255 dumps

QUESTION: 16
During the cool-down phase of an exercise session, clients should be encouraged to
A. Rehydrate.
B. Decrease the intensity of activity quickly to decrease cardiac afterload.
C. Limit the cool-down period to 5 minutes.
D. Increase the number of isometric activities.
210-255 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 17
Muscular endurance training is best accomplished by
A. Performing four to six repetitions per set.
B. Using high resistance.
C. Incorporating high repetitions.
D. Performing isometric exercises only.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 18
Transitional care exercise and rehabilitation programs are NOT appropriate for
A. Clients with functionally limiting chronicdisease.
B. Clients with comorbid disease states.
C. Asymptomatic clients with a functional capacity of 10 MET.

D. Clients at 1 week after CABG surgery.
210-255 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 19
Many clients have WI-mode programmed pacemakers. Which of the following is TRUE
regarding exercise programming with WI pacemakers?
A. Persons with WI pacemakers may be chronotropically (HR) competent with exercise
but require longer warm-up and gradual increase in intensity during the initial exercise
portion of their session.
B. Persons who are chronotropically competent are tachycardic at rest and should not
exercise at low intensities.
C. BP response is not a good marker of intensity effort in those with WI pacemakers and
need not be evaluated during an exercise session.
D. Persons with WI pacemakers must avoid exercise on the bicycle ergometer because of
the location of the ventricular lead wire and potential for displacement.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 20
Controlling pool water temperature (83-88°F), avoiding jarring and weight- bearing
activities, and avoiding movement in swollen, inflamed joints are special considerations
for exercise in
A. Clients after atherectomy.
B. Clients with angina.
C. Clients with osteoporosis.
D. Clients with arthritis.
210-255 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 21
Which of the following is a resistive lung disease?
A. Asthma.
B. Tuberculosis.

C. Cystic fibrosis.
D. Emphysema.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 22
A specific benefit of regular exercise for patients with angina is
A. Improved ischemic threshold at which angina symptoms occur.
B. Increased myocardial oxygen demand at the same submaximallevels.
C. Eradication of all symptoms.
D. Elevation of BP.
210-255 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 23
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of increased flexibility?
A. Increased muscle viscosity, allowing easier and smoother contractions.
B. Reduced muscle tension and increased relaxation.
C. Improved coordination by allowing greater ease of movement.
D. Increased ROM.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 24
Which of the following statements regarding warm-up is FALSE?
A. Muscle blood flow is increased as a result of warm-up.
B. Peripheral vasodilation occurs as a result of warm-up.
C. Peripheral vasoconstriction occurs as a result of warm-up.
D. Between 5 and 10 minutes should be allotted for a warm-up period.
210-255 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 25
Which of the following statements regarding cooldown is FALSE?
A. The emphasis should be large muscle activity performed at a low to moderate
intensity.
B. Increasing venous return should be a priority during cool-down.
C. The potential for improving flexibility may be improved during cool-down as
compared with warm-up.
D. Between 1 and 2 minutes are recommended for an adequate cool-down.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 26
All of the following are examples of aerobic exercise modalities EXCEPT
A. Weight training.
B. Walking.
C. Bicycling.
D. Stair climbing.
210-255 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 27
A target HR equivalent to 85% of HRR for a 25year-old male with a resting HR of 75
bpm would be equal to
A. 195 bpm.
B. 166 bpm.
C. 177 bpm.
D. 102 bpm.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 28
The appropriate exercise HR for an individual on f3-blocking medication would generally
be

A. 75% of HRR.
B. 30 bpm above the standing resting HR.
C. 40% of HRR.
D. (220 – age) X 0.85.
210-255 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 29
The recommended cardiorespiratory exercise training goal for apparently healthy
individuals should be
A. 15 minutes, six times per week, at 90% of HRR.
B. 30 minutes, three times per week, at 85% of HRR.
C. 60 minutes, three times per week, at 85% of HRR.
D. 30 minutes of weight training, three times per week, at 60% of HRR.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 30
In an effort to improve flexibility, the ACSM recommends
A. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation.
B. Ballistic stretching.
C. The plough and hurdler’s stretches.
D. Static stretches held for 10 to 30 seconds per repetition.
210-255 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 31
An appropriate exercise for improving the strength of the low back muscles are
A. Straight leg lifts.
B. Parallel squats.
C. Spinal extension exercises.
D. Sit-ups with feet anchored.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 32
Which of the following statements true regarding exercise leadership is FALSE?
A. The exercise leader should be fit enough to exercise with any of his or her participants.
B. Most people are not bored by exercise and can easily find time to participate in an
exercise program.
C. The exercise leader should adjust the exercise intensity based on individual differences
in fitness.
D. Periodic fitness assessment may provide evidence of improvement in fitness for some
participants.
210-255 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 33
Which of the following statements regarding exercise for the elderly is FALSE?
A. A decrease in maximal HR is responsible for reductions in the maximal oxygen
consumption as we age.
B. A loss of fat-free mass is responsible for the decrease in muscular strength as we age.
C. The ACSM recommends a cardiorespiratory training intensity of 50% to 70% of HRR
for older adults.
D. Resistance exercise training is not recommended for older adults.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 34
Which of the following medications have been shown to be most effective in preventing
or reversing exercise-induced asthma?
A. f3 -Agonists.
2
B. f3-Blockers.
C. Diuretics.
D. Aspirin.

210-255 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
The exercise leader or health/fitness instructor should modify exercise sessions for
participants with hypertension by
A. Shortening the cool-down to less than 5 minutes.
B. Eliminating resistance training completely.
C. Prolonging the cool-down.
D. Implementing high-intensity (>85% of HRR), short-duration intervals.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 36
Normal values for fasting blood sugar are
A. Greater than 140 mg/dL.
B. Between 60 and 140 mg/dL.
C. Less than 60 mg/dL.
D. Between 200 and 400 mg/dL.
210-255 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 37
The goal for the obese exercise participant should be to
A. Sweat as much as possible.
B. Exercise at 85% of HRR.
C. Perform resistance exercise three to five times per week.
D. Expend 300 to 500 calories per exercise session.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-773
Exam Name: Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R (beta)
Updated: Jul 29, 2017
Q&As: 102

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70-773

1.Which statement is true about digital signals as a receiver moves further away from
the transmitter?
A. The gain is higher.
B. The amplitude is lower.
C. The amplitude is higher.
D. The delay spread increases.
70-773 pdf Answer: B
2.Why should you use more than one antenna on an Access Point? (Choose two.)
A. The coverage area is larger.
B. An Access Point cannot operate with only one antenna.
C. Null zones within the coverage area are reduced or eliminated.
D. Reception is better if the transmitter is at the edge of the range.
Answer: CD
3.Which type is ambient RF background noise?
A. wideband
B. sideband
C. edgeband
D. narrowband
70-773 exam Answer: A
4.What are antennas that radiate a toroid-shaped pattern?
A. broadband
B. directional
C. omni-directional
D. multi-directional
Answer: C
5.What is multipathing?
A. radio signals being reflected, refracted, and absorbed
B. a method used by wireless Access Points to correctly route traffic
C. a part of the design process used to determine Access Point location
D. a method used by mobile units to determine the best Access Point to associate with
70-773 dumps Answer: A
6.What is FHSS?
A. Full Heterodyne Spread Spectrum

B. Frequency Hash Streaming System
C. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
D. Function Harmonics Spread Sequence
Answer: C
7.Which two are characteristics of narrow band RF transmissions? (Choose two.)
A. require smaller antenna radiators
B. have an inherent high level of diversity
C. occupy less RF space than wideband RF transmissions
D. are more susceptible to interference than wideband RF transmissions
70-773 vce Answer: CD
8.What is DSSS?
A. Digital Signal Stream System
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
C. Doppler Sending Spread Spectrum
D. Designated System Spread Spectrum
Answer: B
9.Which type of network should you use for wireless communication between a
workstation and its peripherals?
A. Wide Area Network (WAN)
B. Local Area Network (LAN)
C. Personal Area Network (PAN)
D. Satellite Area Network (SAN)
70-773 pdf Answer: C
10.What is the width of a single channel used by FHSS systems?
A. 1 MHz
B. 2 MHz
C. 11 MHz
D. 22 MHz
Answer: A

11.Working with a retailer on a site survey, they ask if there’s any way to get more of the aisle and less of the
shelves on the short sides in the shot. An AXIS M3204 camera is being used. Which would be the best
suggestion to the retailer?
A. Adjusting the varifocal lens from 2.8 mm to 10 mm
B. Adjusting the varifocal lens from 2.8 mm to 4 mm

C. Using Axis’ Corridor Format
D. Switching the camera to a 16:9 view
70-773 vce 
Correct Answer: C
12.The capability to view and record up to four different areas of the whole image of an AXIS P1346 is called
A. Multicast streaming.
B. Multi-view streaming.
C. Broadcast streaming.
D. Multi-link streaming.
Correct Answer: B
13.What is the appropriate usage for an Axis thermal camera?
A. Identifying people in complete darkness
B. Detecting motion only at nighttime
C. Measuring exact temperatures in daytime
D. Detecting activity in daylight and complete darkness
70-773 exam 
Correct Answer: D
14.Increase of bandwidth and storage can be a result of (Choose two)
A. Changing from Motion JPEG to H.264.
B. Arctic Temperature Control.
C. High noise level.
D. The use of High PoE.
E. Image resolution.
Correct Answer: CE
15.A camera lens with a low f-stop value of 1.2 will outperform a lens with a higher f- stop value due to which
one of the parameters below?
A. Better depth of field
B. Better low light capability
C. Improved sharpness
D. Less image artifacts
70-773 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
16. A customer wants his video surveillance system to completely cover the perimeter of his property. For the
installer to ensure that the camera system is not subject to sabotage, he should
A. Install more low-priced cameras to cover the complete site.
B. Make sure each camera is seen by at least one other camera.
C. Use PoE, and not a PoE splitter.
D. Install thermal cameras.
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Jul 29, 2017
Q&As: 118

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300-135

QUESTION 1
When discovering a medication error, the nurse’s FIRST action is to?
A. Call the nurse supervisor
B. Call the physician
C. Fill out a medication error reporting form
D. Assess the patient’s condition
300-135 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
While preparing for a kidney biopsy the nurse should position the patient:
A. Prone with a sandbag under the abdomen
B. Lateral opposite to biopsy site
C. Supine in bed with knee flexion
D. Lateral flexed knee-chest
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
A patient with a central venous line develops sudden clinical manifestations that include a decrease in
blood pressure, an elevated heart rate, cyanosis, tachypnea, and changes in mental status. Which of the
following is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
A. An air embolism
B. Circulatory overload
C. Venous thrombosis
D. Developing bacteremia
300-135 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Order: 1000 ml of D5W to run for 12 hours. Using a micro drip set calculate the drops per minute (gtts/
min):
A. 20 gtts/min
B. 45 gtts/min
C. 60 gtts/min
D. 83 gtts/min
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
A patient voided a urine specimen at 9:00 AM. The specimen should be sent to the laboratory before:
A. 9:30 AM
B. 10:00 AM
C. 10:30 AM
D. 11:00 AM
300-135 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
An 84-year-old man has arthritis and is admitted for a severely edematous knee. The physician orders
heat packs every 2 hours and you feel this order may worsen the tissue congestion. An appropriate

nursing action would be:
A. Contact the physician and discuss your concerns about the order
B. To include the order in the nursing care plan and monitor outcome
C. Complete an incident report form and document concerns in the nursing notes
D. Involve the patient by asking what his treatment preference is
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
The minimal amount of urine that a post-operative patient weighing 60 kgs should pass is?
A. 120 ml/hr
B. 90 ml/hr
C. 60 ml/hr
D. 30 ml/hr
300-135 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
When caring for a patient with impaired mobility that occurred as a result of a stroke (right sided arm and
leg weakness). The nurse would suggest that the patient use which of the following assistive devices that
would provide the best stability for ambulating?
A. Crutches
B. Single straight-legged cane
C. Quad cane
D. Walker
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
While assessing a patient, the nurse learns that he has a history of allergic rhinitis, asthma, and multiple
food allergies. The nurse must:
A. Be alert to hypersensitivity response to the prescribed medications
B. Encourages the patient to carry an epinephrine kit in case of an allergic reaction
C. Advise the patient to use aspirin in case of febrile illnesses
D. Admit the patient to a single room with limited exposure to health care personnel
300-135 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
A patient who has just had a miscarriage at 8 weeks of gestation is admitted to hospital. In caring for this
patient, the nurse should be alert for signs of:
A. Dehydration
B. Subinvolution
C. Hemorrhage
D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
The nurse should observe for which of the following symptoms in a patient who has just undergone a total
thyroidectomy:
A. Weight gain

B. Depressed reflexes
C. Muscle spasm and twitching
D. Irritable behavior
300-135 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
A patient is ordered 75mg of pethidine which comes in an ampoule of 100mg/2ml. What would the nurse
do with the remaining pethidine after drawing up the required dose?
A. Lock up the remaining dose in the medication cupboard to use later
B. Ask a fellow staff nurse to witness the disposal of the remaining drug
C. Use the remaining dose within 2 hours for another patient
D. Pour the remaining dose down the nearest sink
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
A patient is to receive 50mL of fluid in 1/2 hour (30 min). The infusion pump should be set to deliver how
many milliters per hour?
A. 25 ml/hr
B. 50 ml/hr
C. 75 ml/hr
D. 100 ml/hr
300-135 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
A male patient with a right pleural effusion noted on a chest X-ray is being prepared for thoracentesis. The
patient experiences severe dizziness when sitting upright. To provide a safe environment, the nurse
assists the patient to which position for the procedure?
A. Prone with head turned toward the side supported by a pillow
B. Sims’ position with the head of the bed flat
C. Right side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees
D. Left side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
After application of a cast in the upper extremity, the patient complains of severe pain in the affected site.
Which of the following would the nurse initiate?
A. Administer analgesics as ordered
B. Assess neurovascular status
C. Notify his physician
D. Pad the edges of the cast
300-135 vce 
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1Z0-068
Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: RAC and Grid Infrastructure Administration
Updated: Jul 05, 2017
Q&As: 157

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QUESTION NO: 16
If cases are worked on a lab drive in a secure room, without any cleaning of the contents of the
drive, which of the following areas would be of most concern?
A. Storage
B. There is no concern
C. Chain-of-custody
D. Cross-contamination
1Z0-068  dumps Answer: D

 
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following would most likely be an add-in card?
A. Anything plugged into socket 7
B. A motherboard
C. A video card that is connected to the motherboard in the AGP slot
D. The board that connects to the power supply
Answer: C

 
QUESTION NO: 18
Which of the following would be a true statement about the function of the BIOS?
A. The BIOS is responsible for checking and configuring the system after the power is turned on. B. Botha and c.
C. The BIOS is responsible for swapping out memory pages when RAM fills up.
D. The BIOS integrates compressed executable files with memory addresses for faster execution.
1Z0-068  exam Answer: A

 
QUESTION NO: 19
When an EnCase user double-clicks on a valid .jpg file, that file is:
A. Renamed to JPG_0001.jpg and copied to the default export folder.
B. Copied to the default export folder and opened by an associated program.
C. Opened by EnCase.
D. Copied to the EnCase specified temp folder and opened by an associated program.
Answer: D

 

 
QUESTION NO: 20
RAM is an acronym for:
A. Random Addressable Memory
B. Relative Addressable Memory
C. Relative Address Memory
D. Random Access Memory
1Z0-068  pdf Answer: D

 

 
QUESTION NO: 21
The results of a hash analysis on an evidence file that has been added to a case will be stored in
which of the following files?
A. The evidence file
B. The case file
C. The configuration HashAnalysis.ini file
D. All of the above
Answer: B

 
QUESTION NO: 22
The EnCase default export folder is:
A. A global setting that cannot be changed.
B. A case-specific setting that can be changed.
C. A global setting that can be changed.
D. A case-specific setting that cannot be changed.
1Z0-068  vce Answer: B

 

 
QUESTION NO: 23
What are the EnCase configuration .ini files used for?
A. Storing information that will be available to EnCase each time it is opened, regardless of the
active case(s).
B. Storing the results of a signature analysis.
C. Storing pointers to acquired evidence.
D. Storing information that is specific to a particular case.
Answer: A

 

 
QUESTION NO: 24
A CPU is:
A. A chip that would be considered the brain of a computer, which is installed on a motherboard.
B. A Central Programming Unit.
C. An entire computer box, not including the monitor and other attached peripheral devices.
D. A motherboard with all required devices connected.
1Z0-068  dumps Answer: A

 

 
QUESTION NO: 25
A case file can contain hard drive images?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. any number of
Answer: D

 

 

 

QUESTION NO: 26 CORRECT TEXT

A standard DOS 6.22 boot disk is acceptable for booting a suspect drive.

Answer: True

Answer: False

1Z0-068  exam Answer: Pending

 

 

 

QUESTION NO: 27 CORRECT TEXT

The temporary folder of a case cannot be changed once it has been set.

Answer: True

Answer: False

Answer: Pending

 

 

 

 

QUESTION NO: 28

In Unicode, one printed character is composed of

  1. 1
  2. 8
  3. 4
  4. 2

Answer: D

 

QUESTION NO: 29

The signature table data is found in which of the following files?

  1. The case file
  2. All of the above
  3. The configuration FileSignatures.ini file
  4. The evidence file

Answer: C

 

 

 

QUESTION NO: 30
What does the acronym BIOS stand for?
A. Basic Integrated Operating System
B. Basic Input/Output System
C. Binary Input/Output System
D. Binary Integrated Operating System
Answer: B

 
QUESTION NO: 31
In the EnCase environment, the term xternal viewers?is best described as: In the EnCase
environment, the term ?xternal viewers?is best described as:
A. Programs that are exported out of an evidence file.
B. Programsthat are associated with EnCase to open specific file types.
C. Any program that will work with EnCase.
D. Any program that is loaded on the lab hard drive.
Answer: B

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[Updated July 2017] Latest Juniper JNCIA-Junos JN0-102 Dumps Questions – JN0-102 Exam Certification on Slideshare

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Exam Code: JN0-102
Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Associate, Junos(JNCIA-Junos)
Updated: Jun 29, 2017
Q&As: 395

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JN0-102

QUESTION 62
— Exhibit —
[email protected]> show configuration
groups {
ge-int {
interfaces {
<ge-*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet {
address 10.10.12.1/24;
}
}
}
}
}
}

interfaces {
ge-0/0/1 {
unit 0;
}
— Exhibit —
Referring to the exhibit, which two actions would you take to only apply the 10.10.12.1/24 address to the
ge-0/0/1.0 interface?
A. Apply the ge-int group to the configuration at the [edit] hierarchy.
B. Apply the ge-int group to the configuration at the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1] hierarchy.
C. Apply the ge-int group to the configuration at the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1 unit 0] hierarchy.
D. Apply the ge-int group to the configuration at the [edit interfaces] hierarchy.
JN0-102 dumps Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 63
Which interface type connects the control and forwarding planes on an MX Series device?
A. fxp1
B. fxp0
C. me0
D. ae1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
Which command is used to restore a Junos device to its default state?
A. load factory-default
B. load override factory-default
C. load replace default
D. load set default
JN0-102 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
— Exhibit —
{master:0}[edit interfaces]
[email protected]# show
me0 {
disable;
unit 0 {
familyinet {
address 10.1.1.10/24;
}
}
}
— Exhibit —
Administrators report that they are unable to access the management interface of the EX Series device
shown in the exhibit.
Which command will resolve this problem?
A. delete me0 disable
B. activate me0
C. set me0 unit 0 enable

D. deactivate me0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
Which statement is true about logical units?
A. Logical units are similar to VLANs used by other vendors.
B. A logical unit is required for transit interfaces.
C. Frame Relay encapsulation supports one logical unit.
D. Link speed and duplex are configured in the logical unit properties.
JN0-102 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
— Exhibit —
[edit system syslog]
[email protected]# show
host 152.170.10.10 {
any warning;
}
file changes {
change-log info;
}
— Exhibit —
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Any warning message will be sent to the 152.170.10.10 host.
B. A warning message will be logged when the 152.170.10.10 host logs in.
C. Changes to the device’s internal temperatures will be logged.
D. Changes to the configuration will be logged.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 68
Which command is used to load the rescue configuration?
A. load override rescue
B. rollback rescue
C. load replace rescue-configuration
D. rollback 49
JN0-102 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
Which two external authentication servers are supported for administrative access to a Junos device?
(Choose two.)
A. RADIUS
B. LDAP
C. ACE
D. TACACS+
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 70
— Exhibit —
[email protected]> restart

^
unknown command.
— Exhibit —
You are investigating routing problems on a device running the Junos OS. You receive the error shown in
the exhibit when you attempt to restart the routing process.
Which statement describes the problem?
A. You have typed an invalid command.
B. You must be in configuration mode to restart the routing process.
C. You do not have permission to restart the routing process.
D. You must wait until close of business to restart the routing process, based on user-defined policy.
JN0-102 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
At which command prompt would you issue the set date <date> command?
A. [edit chassis]
[email protected]#
B. [edit]
[email protected]#
C. [edit system]
[email protected]#
D. [email protected]>
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
You must apply the family inet configuration parameter only to Gigabit Ethernet interfaces that are in FPC
2.
Which output applies to this configuration?
A. [edit groups]
[email protected]# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<ge-*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}
}
}
}
B. [edit groups]
[email protected]# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}
}
}
}
C. [edit groups]
[email protected]# show
ge-int {
interfaces {

2/*/*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}
}
}
}
D. [edit groups]
[email protected]# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<ge-2/*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}
}
}
}
JN0-102 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73
— Exhibit —
[edit interfaces ge-0/0/1]
[email protected]# show
unit 100 {
vlan-id 100;
familyinet {
address /24;
}
}
[edit interfaces ge-0/0/1]
[email protected]# commit check
[edit interfaces ge-0/0/1]
‘unit 100’
Only unit 0 is valid for this encapsulation
error: configuration check-out failed
— Exhibit —
Referring to the exhibit, you are unable to commit the configuration for the ge-0/0/1 interface.
What must you do to commit the configuration?
A. You must set the vlan-tagging parameter under the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1] hierarchy.
B. You must use the rename command to change unit 100 to unit 0.
C. You must set the encapsulation flexible-ethernet-services parameter under the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1]
hierarchy.
D. You must set the encapsulation vlan-ccc parameter under the [edit interfaces ge-0/0/1 unit 100]
hierarchy.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 74
You are asked to configure the configuration archival feature on your Junos devices.
Which two transfer methods are available? (Choose two.)
A. TFTP
B. FTP
C. SCP

D. SFTP
JN0-102 pdf Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 75
— Exhibit —
[email protected]> show system alarms
1 alarms currently active
Alarm time Class Description
2013-09-14 23:54:01 UTC Minor Rescue configuration is not set
— Exhibit —
Which command will resolve the problem shown in the exhibit?
A. [email protected]> request system configuration rescue save
B. [email protected]# request system configuration rescue save
C. [email protected]> file copy current /config/rescue.conf
D. [email protected]# file copy current /config/rescue.conf
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
Which command displays only the interfaces that are operationally and administratively up?
A. show interfaces terse | match up
B. show interfaces terse | match down
C. show interfaces terse | except up
D. show interfaces terse | except down
JN0-102 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77
To which directory does the Junos OS write traceoptions files?
A. /var/tmp/
B. /var/
C. /var/log/
D. /var/home/<username>/
Correct Answer: C

JN0-102

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Exam Code: 117-202
Exam Name: LPI Level 2 Exam 202
Updated: Jun 24, 2017
Q&As: 294
Exam Information: https://www.pass4itsure.com/117-202.html

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117-202

QUESTION 21
Which setting in the Courier IMAP configuration file will tell the IMAP daemon to only listen on the localhost
interface?
A. ADDRESS=127.0.0.1
B. Listen 127.0.0.1
C. INTERFACE=127.0.0.1
D. LOCALHOST_ONLY=1
117-202 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
You suspect that you are receiving messages with a forged From: address. What could help you find out
where the mail is originating?
A. Install TCP wrappers, and log all connections on port 25
B. A dd the command ‘FR-strlog’ to the sendmail.cf file
C. Add the command ‘define (‘LOG_REAL_FROM’) dnl’ to the sendmail.mc file
D. Run a filter in the aliases file that checks the originating address when mail arrives
E. Look in the ReceiveD. and Message-ID. parts of the mail header
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
You have to mount the /data filesystem from an NFS server(srvl) that does not support locking. Which of
the following mount commands should you use?
A. mount -a -t nfs
B. mount -o locking=off srvl:/data /mnt/data
C. mount -o nolocking srvl:/data /mnt/data
D. mount -o nolock srvl:/data /mnt/data
E. mount -o nolock /[email protected] /mn/data
117-202 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
In what mode is your FTP session when the client side makes the connections to both the data and
command ports of the FTP server?
A. passive
B. active
C. impassive
D. safe
E. inactive
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which of the following organisations track and report on security related flaws in computer technology?
(Please select TWO answers)
A. Bugtraq
B. CERT
C. CSIS
D. Freshmeat
E. Kernel.org
117-202 pdf Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 26
Which of the following Linux services has support for only the Routing Information Protocol (RIP) routing
protocol?
A. gated
B. ipchains
C. netfilter
D. routed
E. zebra
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which of the following is NOT included in a Snort rule header?
A. protocol
B. action
C. source IP address
D. packet byte offset
E. source port
117-202 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which environment variables are used by ssh-agent? (Please select TWO variables)
A. SSH_AGENT_KEY
B. SSH_AGENT_SOCK
C. SSH_AGENT_PID
D. SSH_AUTH_SOCK
E. SSH_AUTH_PID
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 29
What tool scans log files for unsuccessful login attempts and blocks the offending IP addresses with
firewall rules?
A. nessus
B. nmap
C. nc
D. watchlogs
E. fail2ban
117-202 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 30
Running sysctl has the same effect as:
A. Changing the kernel compilation parameters
B. Writing to files inside /proc
C. Changing process limits using ulimit
D. Editing files inside /etc/sysconfig
E. There is no equivalent to this utility
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Which files are read by the lsdev command? (Please specify THREE answers)
A. /proc/dma
B. /proc/filesystems
C. /proc/interrupts
D. /proc/ioports
E. /proc/swaps
117-202 dumps Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 32
Which of the following describes the main purpose of strace?
A. Show the TCP/IP stack data, to help to solve network problems
B. Help to follow the traces of intruders of the internal network
C. Debug programs by displaying the original code of the program. It is a kind of “disassembler”
D. Reverse engineer applications, resulting in the source code of the program
E. Debug programs by monitoring system calls and reporting them
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 33
The following data is some of the output produced by a program. Which program produced this output?
strftime (” Thu”, 1024, “%a”, 0xb7f64380) =4
fwrite (“Thu”, 3, 1, 0xb7f614e0) =1
fputc (‘ ‘, 0xb7f614e0) =32
strftime (” Feb”, 1024, ” %b”, 0xb7f64380) =4
fwrite (“Feb”, 3, 1, 0xb7f614e0) =1
fputc (‘ ‘, 0xb7f614e0) =32
fwrite (“19”, 2, 1, 0xb7f614e0) =1
A. lsof
B. ltrace
C. nm
D. strace
E. time
117-202 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
On bootup, LILO prints out LIL and stops. What is the cause of this?
A. The descriptor table is bad
B. LILO failed to load the second stage loader
C. LILO failed to load the primary stage loader
D. LILO failed to locate the kernel image
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
A server was rebuilt using a full system backup but with a different disk setup. The kernel won’t boot,
complaining it cannot find the root filesystem. Which of the following commands will fix this error by
pointing the kernel image to the new root partition?
A. mkbootdisk
B. tune2fs
C. rdev
D. grub-install
E. fdisk
117-202 vce Correct Answer: C

117-202

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